EPPR00494413 · QUEENSLAND ALUMINA LIMITED

All reasonable and practicable measures must be taken to minimise the likelihood of environmental harm being caused.

All information and records required by the conditions of this environmental authority must be kept for a period of at least five (5) years and provided to the administering authority in the specified format upon request.

An Environmental Management System (EMS) that includes all the requirements of and conforms to AS/NZS ISO 14001:2004 (Environmental Management Systems - requirements with guidance for use) or more recent versions must be implemented.

The administering authority must be notified by telephone as soon as practicable, but within twelve (12) hours of becoming aware of any emergency, event or incident which: (a) results in the release of contaminants not in accordance with, or reasonably expected to be not in accordance with, the conditions of this environmental authority; and (b) has the potential to cause material or serious environmental harm. Note: The Pollution Hotline is the most appropriate after-hours contact.

All other breaches not in accordance with or reasonably expected not to be in accordance with the conditions of this environmental authority must be reported to the administering authority within twenty-four (24) hours or the next business day.

A monthly compliance report outlining the following must be submitted to the administering authority within twenty (20) business days of the end of each month: (a) the date and time of initial notifications reported to the administering authority as required by (G4) and (G5); (b) complaint information as required by conditions (G15) and (N2) received in the month; (c) visible dust events report as required by condition (A12) and (A13); and (d) a summary of the month's non-compliances with the environmental authority including written advice detailing the below information regarding any notification in accordance with condition (G4) and (G5): i. the name of the holder of the environmental authority and the environmental authority number; ii. the name and telephone number of a designated contact person; iii. the location of the release/event; iv. the time and date of the release/event; v. the time the holder became aware of the release/event; vi. the suspected cause of the release/event; vii. details of the approximate quantity of substance released; viii. details of the area/location impacted by the release/event; ix. a description of the resulting effects of the release/event; x. the results of any sampling performed in relation to the release/event; xi. actions taken to mitigate any environmental harm (including environmental nuisance) caused by the release/event; and xii. proposed actions to prevent a recurrence of the release/event.

All instruments, equipment and measuring devices used for measuring or monitoring must be calibrated, operated and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications and/or reference method requirements and/or NATA requirements. OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413

All Continuous Environmental Monitoring Systems required by this environmental authority must have an instrument availability of at least 80% except for the continuous monitoring of release points in Schedule 2, Table 2 (Required release point determinations) which must have an instrument availability of at least 90%.

All analysis and tests required under this environmental authority must be carried out by a laboratory that has NATA certification for such analysis and tests. The only exception to this condition is for the in-situ monitoring of: (a) physicochemical parameters in waters, sediment and soil samples for pH, temperature, turbidity, electrical conductivity, dissolved oxygen, and volumetric flow; (b) wind speed, wind direction, rainfall, air temperature and relative humidity; (c) gas velocity, volumetric flow rates, temperature and moisture content in stacks; and (d) noise level descriptors such as LA10, LA90, LAeq, LAmax, LCpeak and 1/3rd octave frequency; and (e) event-based Direct Toxicity Assessment required under conditions W8 and W9.

Records and raw data relating to the accuracy, precision, and reliability of the results of monitoring required by this environmental authority must be kept. This includes, but is not limited to: (a) records taken in the field during sampling; (b) chain of custody documentation for samples taken; (c) calibration records; (d) raw data; and (e) laboratory analysis reports.

An Emergency Incident Response Plan must be implemented that complies with ISO14001. The Emergency Incident Response Plan must be reviewed within three (3) months of completion of the Emissions Verification Study required by condition (A10) and (A11) to incorporate any change (new or increased) in hazards identified through the study

The holder must maintain a capability of reporting to the administering authority within three hours of any air emission incident that has the potential for, adverse impacts beyond the site boundary. The report must detail the source, potential path and the approximate dispersion concentration for contaminants within the plume that present a risk of material environmental harm and be made available to the administering authority and other emergency services agencies.

The holder must: (a) Obtain from a suitably qualified third party auditor a report on compliance with the conditions of this environmental authority on or before 30 August 2016, and every three (3) years thereafter; (b) provide each report to the administering authority within twenty-eight (28) business days of its completion; and (c) accompany each report with a statutory declaration from the auditor, stating that the report accurately represents the findings of the auditor and that the report has been prepared independently of the holder and is the independently held opinion of the auditor.

The scale of the alumina refinery and associated environmentally relevant activities authorised under this environmental authority is the scale indicated in the application information titled "2013 QAL Major Amendment Application" and the intensity of use for the environmentally relevant activities is for the production of not more than 4.5 million tonnes of alumina per calendar year. OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413

The holder must record the following details for all complaints received and provide this information to the administering authority with each month's compliance report: (a) time, date, name and contact details of the complainant (name when authorised by the complainant); (b) reasons for the complaint; (c) response and any investigations undertaken; (d) conclusions formed; (e) grounds for forming the conclusions; and (f) any actions taken as a result of the complaint

When requested by the administering authority, monitoring must be undertaken by an appropriately qualified person(s) to investigate any complaint of alleged environmental nuisance caused by a release from the site at any sensitive receptor. The request may outline: (a) When the monitoring must be commenced; (b) The duration of the monitoring; (c) The methods and relevant standard to be complied with; (d) Any evaluation, inspection and review of potential dust, particulate matter, odour or other noxious/ offensive emission sources and associated pollution control systems; (e) Any review and interpretation of monitoring results; (f) Any modelling required; and (g) The date, the results and analysis is to be submitted to the administering authority

Irrespective of any release limits in this environmental authority, the holder must not cause environmental nuisance. Note: In the first instance the matter will be responded to via the QAL complaint procedure and managed via the QAL Environment Management System.

By 31 December 2026 an Asset Management System (AMS) that includes all the requirements of and conforms to AS/NZS ISO55001:2014 (Asset management - Management systems - Requirements) or more recent versions must be prepared and implemented.

The AMS required by condition G18 must be reviewed and certified as conforming with ISO 55001 by an appropriately qualified person: (a) who is independent of the EA holder and any shareholder of the EA holder; and (b) with demonstrated skills and experience in alumina refinery operations, ISO 14001 Environmental Management System and ISO 9001:2015 Quality Management System; and (c) who is a practicing professional engineer, or (d) as agreed with the administering authority.

The AMS required by condition G18 must cover the entire lifecycle of assets associated with plant and equipment, including, but not limited to the assets used in the carrying out of environmentally relevant activities under this Environmental Authority which involve either: (a) handling of hazardous chemicals; and/or (b) the application of high temperature and pressure.

On or before 31 December 2026 and at least every 3 years thereafter, the holder must ensure that the AMS required by G18 will be independently reviewed by an appropriately qualified person in accordance with G19. A copy of the certification report and the accompanying statutory declaration will be provided to the administering authority within 28 days of the completion of the review by the qualified person. OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413

The Strategic Asset Management Plan (SAMP) must be amended within 30 days of each review as required to ensure compliance with the conditions of the EA. OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Schedule N - Acoustic

Noise levels must comply with Table 8 (Attended noise measurement locations and limits) and the associated requirements. Associated requirements: 1. Monitoring must be undertaken annually in winter by an appropriately qualified person(s) at all attended noise monitoring locations in Table 8 (Attended noise measurement locations and limits) and as referenced in Schedule 1 Figure 7 (Attended noise monitoring locations). 2. The method of measurement and reporting of noise levels must comply with the latest edition of the administering authority's Noise Measurement Manual.

All noise complaints of environmental nuisance must be reported to the administering authority in the monthly compliance report as required by condition (G6). The report must include all requirements of condition (G15) and the continuous monitoring records as well as other relevant noise monitoring records taken at the time of the complaint.

Noise must be continuously monitored at the locations and comply with the associated requirements as specified in Table 9 (Continuous noise measurement location). Associated requirements include: (a) instrumentation that is on-line, real-time, contain noise source detection (audio) and be able to be recorded; (b) the noise level measured is LAeq,adj,15 mins; and (c) the method of measurement and reporting of noise levels must comply with the latest edition of the administering authority's Noise Measurement Manual.

Monitoring must be undertaken by an appropriately qualified person(s) during blasting activities and blasting must not exceed the following when monitored at the nearest dwelling: (a) the air blast overpressure must not exceed more than 115dB Z Peak for 4 out of any 5 consecutive blasts; (b) the air blast overpressure must not exceed more than 120dB Z Peak from any single blast; and (c) the ground vibration is: i. for vibrations of more than 35Hz--more than 25mm a second ground vibration, peak particle velocity; or ii. for vibrations of no more than 35Hz--more than 10mm a second ground vibration, peak particle velocity.

Blasting must not occur on Sundays and public holidays. Blasting can only occur during the hours of 8:00am to 5:00pm Monday to Friday and 9:00am to 3:00pm on Saturdays. OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Table 8 Attended noise measurement locations and limits Noise Limits Attended noise monitoring Attended noise monitoring locations Daytime Evening and Night- time locations (Eastings and Northings) 7am - 6pm (same day) 6pm - 7am (next day)

Noise level measured LAeq,adj,15 mins N - 7360649.585, E - 324397.467 55 dB(A) 50 dB(A)

N - 7360132.124, E - 324070.421 55 dB(A) 50 dB(A)

N - 7359328.387, E - 323842.531 55 dB(A) 50 dB(A)

N - 7357979.739, E - 324307.369 55 dB(A) 50 dB(A) Table 9 Continuous noise measurement location Location descriptor Noise measured at a set location (Eastings and Northings) Barney Point (Scout Hall) N - 7360394.091 E - 324213.872 OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Schedule A - Air

A weather monitoring station must be maintained which measures and records the following meteorological parameters: (a) air temperature; (b) relative humidity; (c) wind direction; (d) wind speed; and (e) rainfall.

Contaminants must only be released to the atmosphere from the release points identified in Schedule 2, Table 1 (Contaminant release limits to air).

Dilution air must not be added after the exit of the Induced Draft Fan on Boilers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, Calciners 1, 2, 3 and Lurgi Calciner and after the exit of the Furnace on Package Boilers 1, 2, 3. Note: The intent of this condition is to avoid addition of dilution air to meet emission concentration limits.

Contaminants must not be released to the atmosphere at a concentration calculated over the averaging period, as measured at a monitoring point, in excess of that stated in Schedule 2, Table 1 (Contaminant release limits to air).

Contaminants must be monitored at the minimum frequency specified in Schedule 2, Table 2 (Required release point determinations).

Monitoring of any releases to the atmosphere required by a condition of this environmental authority must be carried out in accordance with the following requirements: (a) monitoring provisions for the release points listed in Schedule 2, Table 1 (Contaminant release limits to air) must comply with the Australian Standard AS 4323.1 - 1995 `Stationary source emissions Method 1: Selection of sampling positions' (or more recent editions); (b) all determinations of contaminant releases to the atmosphere must be made by an appropriately qualified person(s) and in accordance with methods prescribed in the most recent version of the administering authority's Air Quality Sampling Manual or other method stated in Table 3 (Contaminant determination methods); (c) samples must be taken when emissions are expected to be representative of actual operating conditions for the sample frequency period; (d) during the sampling period, the following additional information must be gathered: i. emission source related production rates at the time of sampling and detailed commentary on the stability of the related process leading up to (at least twenty - four (24) hours) and during the time of sampling; and ii. any other factors that may influence air emissions (e.g. changes to operating conditions). (e) the following minimum test must be performed for each required determination specified in Schedule 2, Table 1 (Contaminant release limits to air): i. gas velocity and volume flow rate; ii. temperature; and iii. water vapour concentration.

A maintenance program must be developed that provides an inventory of what air pollution control equipment needs to be maintained, identifies the standard and frequency to which it will be maintained and keeps a history of the maintenance performed. OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413

Where pollution control systems are installed to treat exhaust gases, dust and vapours: (a) they must be maintained and operated in accordance with the manufacturer's operating instructions and manufacturer's specifications; and (b) for fabric filter dust collectors, replacement bags must be available and the collectors must, at all times: i. be fitted with a device (e.g. differential pressure sensor) installed across the boundary of the active filter bags to detect filter medium breakthrough; and ii. have a monitoring system including an alarm, installed and operating to alert of filter medium breakthrough.

Where monitoring of air pollution control equipment indicates impeded operational performance of pollution control equipment, standby systems must operate to ensure continuous operation of the air pollution control system or the plant serviced by the air pollution control systems must be safely shut down as soon as practicable, unless otherwise agreed by the administering authority.

All complaints of visible dust events must be notified to the administering authority within twenty- four (24) hours or on the next business day.

A report detailing the occurrence of each visible dust event in condition (A12) must be submitted to the administering authority in the monthly compliance report with the following information: (a) time and date of the event; (b) the dust source; (c) relevant operations occurring at the time; (d) nearest sensitive place at the time of the event; (e) wind speed and direction; (f) remedial action taken; and (g) details of any complaints if received.

The holder must, when requested in writing by the administering authority, contribute to the undertaking of an ambient air monitoring program in consultation with the administering authority.

A dust and/or particulate matter monitoring program that complies with Schedule 2, Table 4 (Dust and/or particulate matter monitoring program) and Schedule 1, Figure 6 (Ambient dust monitoring locations) must be undertaken by an appropriately qualified person(s).

The release of dust and/or particulate matter as a result of the environmentally relevant activities to which this environmental authority relates must not exceed the limits stated in Schedule 2, Table 4 (Dust and/or particulate matter monitoring program).

It is not a contravention of condition (A16) if it can be shown that other site(s), not impacted by the environmentally relevant activities to which this environmental authority relates, but is representative of background condition, is also in exceedance of these limits.

The burning of flammable substances during firefighting training exercises must only be conducted at times when prevailing wind conditions are least likely to cause an environmental nuisance at a nuisance sensitive place.

The administering authority must be notified before burning any alternative fuel other than the following: (a) coal, natural gas, diesel, fuel oil; and (b) hydrocarbon contaminated coal, recycled oils, greases and degreasers. OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Table 3 Contaminant determination methods Test Method Parameter Gas Velocity, Volumetric Flow Rate and Temperature USEPA Method 2 AS 4323.1 Moisture Content Oxygen (O2) USEPA Method 4 Carbon Dioxide (CO2) Oxides of Nitrogen (NO, NO2 and NOx) USEPA Method 3A Particulates (TSP) Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane USEPA Method 3A equivalent Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) USEPA Method 7E Cadmium AS 4323.2 Mercury USEPA Method 25A USEPA SW-846 Method 0031 USEPA Method 6C USEPA Method 8 USEPA Method 29 USEPA Method 29 USEPA Method 30B OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Schedule L - Land

Oxides of Nitrogen 1 hour rolling average 52 (Package Boiler 1)

Oxides of Nitrogen 350mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average 52 (Package Boiler 2)

Oxides of Nitrogen 350mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average 52 (Package Boiler 3) Particulates 50mg/Nm3 (dry) 24 hour rolling average 61 GSC1 (Calciner 1) OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Release point Contaminant release Maximum concentration Averaging Period Minimum release height release limit - (metres - Australian Height Datum) Oxides of Nitrogen 200mg/Nm3 (dry) 40mg/Nm3 (dry) Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane 50mg/Nm3 (dry) - equivalent 200mg/Nm3 (dry) 40mg/Nm3 (dry) Particulates 24 hour rolling average 50mg/Nm3 (dry)

Thermal Oxidiser - 28 Thermal Oxidiser - 29 OFFICIAL Table 2 Required release point determinations Permit Release point Contaminant Released Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Particulates

(Package Sulphur Dioxide Permit Boiler 1) Mercury Environmental authority EPPR00494413

(Package Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent Boiler 2) Continuous Oxides of Nitrogen One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually

(Package One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually Boiler 3) Oxides of Nitrogen Continuous

Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent Continuous

Particulates One Calciner release point annually Oxides of Nitrogen One Calciner release point annually Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent Continuous Cadmium Annually Mercury Annually Cadmium Annually Mercury Annually Annually Annually OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Table 4 Dust and/or particulate matter monitoring program Indicator Limit Averaging Periods Locations Minimum Monitoring 90 -g/m3 24 hour Frequency TSP 50 -g/m3 24 hour R1, R2, R3, Continuously 120mg/m2/day 30 days (See Figure 6) Particulate Matter less than Continuously 10-m in aerodynamic R3 diameter (PM10) (See Figure 6) Monthly Dust deposition (total insoluble solids) R1, R2 (See Figure 6) Associated requirements include: The following relevant Australian Standards are to be used in Table 4 unless otherwise agreed to in writing by the administering authority. (a) AS/NZS 3580.1.1:2007 Methods for sampling and analysis of ambient air - Part 1.1: Guide to siting air monitoring equipment. (b) AS/NZS 3580.9.8:2001 Method 9.8: Determination of suspended particulate matter - PM10 continuous direct mass method using a tapered element oscillating microbalance analyser. (c) AS/NZS 3580.9.3:2003 Methods for sampling and analysis of ambient air - Determination of suspended particulate matter - Total suspended particulate matter (TSP) - High volume sampler gravimetric method. (d) AS/NZS 3580.10.1:2003 Methods for sampling and analysis of ambient air - Determination of particulate matter - Deposited matter - Gravimetric method. (e) AS/NZS 3580.9.11:2008 Methods for determination of suspended particulate matter, PM10 beta attenuation monitors OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Table 5 Contaminants, sources, locations of releases to waters, release limits and monitoring Release Point Contaminants, Source and Receiving Environment Eastings and Name Parameters (units) Release Limit Minimum Northings Median sample frequency Locations Minimum Maximum Continuous

Sand Shallow (TRH)3 Shallow 328082.2318 7360335.001 Compliance Silty Sand 4.218 3.482 2.05-5.05 Shallow Major Ions Shallow (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4)

327850.1036 7360634.349 Operational Silty Sand 4.585 4.119 2.0-5.0 Fluoride ST8b 327882.179 7360734.694 Compliance Sand, Sandy 5.005 4.310 3.5-6.5

327935.213 7360572.43 Gravel Field Filtered Metal(loid)s

(Aluminium, Arsenic, Gallium, Clayey 4.679 4.228 2.5-5.5 Quarterly Operational Sand, Silty Molybdenum, Vanadium) Clayey Sand 328218.358 7360536.554 Compliance Sand 3.336 2.340 4.5-7.5 Shallow Alkalinity 3.5-6.5 Shallow (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate ST95a 327805.289 7360618.115 Compliance Gravel, 4.181 4.167 6.4-8.0 Shallow

328186.630 7360685.580 Compliance Sand 2.5-5.5 and Hydroxide) 2.533 1.725 Gravelly 2.0-5.0 Electrical Conductivity Sand pH

328201.016 7360597.389 Compliance Silty Sand 2.606 1.670 Shallow Standing water level Plant AP1a 325868.909 7360019.953 Operational TBA 5.275 4.394 Shallow Total Recoverable Hydrocarbons Quarterly (TRH)3 OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 AP2b 325882.441 7360021.459 Compliance Claystone 5.270 4.369 9.0-12.0 Deep Major Ions

6.555 5.900 1.7-3.2 (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4)

6.545 5.865 12.6-15.6 AP5a 325612.0582 7359733.247 Compliance Clayey 5.684 4.873 0.7-3.4 Shallow Fluoride

Gravel 4.517 4.392 1.5-4.5 Deep 19.0-31.0 Field Filtered Metal(loid)s 325609.2282 7359734.327 Compliance Shale 7.7-13.7 Shallow (Aluminium, Arsenic, Gallium, 2.5-5.5 Shallow 325486.219 7359813.725 Compliance Sand, 2.5-5.5 Molybdenum, Vanadium) Clayey 6.0-12.0 Deep Sand, Fill Deep Alkalinity 0.9-2.1 (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate 326137.765 7360164.214 Operational Silty Clay 1.2-2.7 1.6-3.1 and Hydroxide)

325706.527 7359025.092 Compliance Shale 21.669 21.139 Electrical Conductivity AP16a 326094.4645 7359134.211 Operational Shale 4.835 4.297 AP17a pH AP43

Standing water level 326095.0745 7359136.081 Operational Silty Clayey 4.879 4.281 Shallow 325009.3119 7359193.441 Compliance Gravel, 325004.5119 7359183.641 Shale 4.594 3.861 Shallow Deep Clay, Silty Clay Compliance Claystone, 4.588 3.568 Mudstone Ash/Sand Ponds AP7a 324841.908 7360162.470 Operational Sandy Clay, 4.423 3.603 Shallow Major Ions AP8a 324891.733 7360563.913 Fill Shallow (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4) AP9a 325140.388 7360623.403 Shallow Compliance Clayey 4.447 3.374 Fluoride Quarterly Sand, Fill Field Filtered Metal(loid)s Gravelly 4.795 3.820 (Aluminium, Arsenic, Gallium, Compliance Sandy Clay, Molybdenum, Vanadium) Fill OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413

325359.4706 7360649.521 Compliance Sandstone 4.107 3.540 1.75-3.25 Shallow Alkalinity 5.012 4.421 1.9-4.9 Shallow (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate AP11a Clayey 5.577 4.588 325715.647 7360802.098 Operational Gravel, Silty 4.7-6.2 and Hydroxide) 9.0-15.0 sand, Fill 4.1-7.1 Electrical Conductivity AP12a 325948.592 7360562.095 Operational Clayey Deep pH Gravel Standing water level

325358.4406 7360645.881 Compliance Shale 4.115 3.575 Deep AP18a 326772.080 7357525.692 Compliance Silty Clay 5.217 4.31 Deep AP60

326961.938 7358713.319 Compliance Clayey Silt, 6.011 5.096 0.9-3.9 Shallow 326871.119 7360098.96 Gravelly Clay, Clay, Fill Compliance Gravel, Clay, 5.661 4.985 1.5-4.5 Shallow Fill Landfills

326335.179 7359226.856 Operational Clay 6.557 5.158 2.6-5.6 Shallow Major Ions 2.5-5.5 Shallow (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4) Quarterly Fluoride

326165.371 7358400.285 Compliance Sand 3.990 3.347 OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Field Filtered Metal(loid)s (Aluminium, Arsenic, Gallium, Molybdenum, Vanadium)

326107.046 7358410.566 Operational TBA 2.979 2.565 0.5-1.0 Shallow Alkalinity (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate 6.0-12.0 1.0-4.0 and Hydroxide) 9.85-15.85 16.0-19.0 Electrical Conductivity 15.5-18.5 9.0-12.0 pH 7.0-10.0 Standing water level Red Mud Dam 2

OFFICIAL Permit A transitional environmental program (TEP) relates to this environmental authority and is currently in force until 31 December 2027. The holder of this environmental Environmental Protection Act 1994 authority is also the holder of the TEP. A copy of the TEP, titled `Transitional Environmental Program, Document Reference MAN-E-101142209 dated 17 August and Innovation, PO Box 5065 GLADSTONE QLD 4680. In accordance with section 349 of the Environmental Protection Act 1994 (the Act), the holder of an approval for a TEP must achieve full compliance with the Act for the matters dealt with by the TEP at the end of the period over which the TEP is carried out. It is an offence to contravene a requirement of the TEP or a condition of the TEP approval. This environmental authority is issued by the administering authority under Chapter 5 of the Environmental Protection Act 1994. Environmental authority number: EPPR00494413 Environmental authority takes effect on 19 March 2026. Environmental authority holder(s) Registered address Parsons Point GLADSTONE QLD 4680 Name(s) Queensland Alumina Limited Environmentally relevant activity and location details Environmentally relevant activity/activities Location(s) ERA 07 - Chemical manufacturing Lot 2/RP615744, Lot 4/SP203074 6(d) - Manufacturing, in a year, the following quantities of inorganic chemicals, other than inorganic chemicals to which items 1 to 4 apply - more than 100,000t ERA 08 - Chemical Storage Lot 3/CTN2051, Lot 38/CTN1559, Lot 4/SP203074, Lot 5 - storing 200 cubic metres or more of chemicals that 57/CTN1559 are liquids, other than chemicals mentioned in items 1 to 3, under subsection (1)(d) ERA 08 - Chemical Storage Lot 3/CTN2051, Lot 38/CTN1559, Lot 4/SP144771, Lot 4 - storing 200t or more of chemicals that are solids or 4/SP203074, Lot 57/CTN1559 gases, other than chemicals mentioned in items 1 to 3, under subsection (1)(d) ERA 08 - Chemical Storage Lot 3/CTN2051, Lot 38/CTN1559, Lot 4/SP144771, Lot 3 - Storing more than 500 cubic metres of chemicals of 4/SP203074, Lot 57/CTN1559 class C1 or C2 combustible liquids under AS 1940 or dangerous goods class 3 under subsection (1)(c) ERA 14 - Electricity generation Lot 4/SP203074 2(a) - Generating electricity by using a fuel, other than gas, at a rated capacity of 10MW electrical to 150MW electrical ERA 15 - Fuel burning Lot 2/RP615744, Lot 4/SP203074 Using fuel burning equipment that is capable of burning at least 500kg of fuel in an hour ERA 16 - Extraction and Screening Lot 21/CTN1199, Lot 38/CTN1559, Lot 4/SP203074, Lot 2(c) - Extracting, other than by dredging, in a year, the 42/CTN1904, Lot 5/SP144771, Lot 57/CTN1559 following quantity of material - more than 1,000,000t

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Environmentally relevant activity/activities Location(s) ERA 16 - Extraction and Screening Lot 57/CTN1559 1(a) - Dredging, in a year, the following quantity of material - 1000t to 10,000t ERA 31 - Mineral processing Lot 2/RP615744, Lot 234/CP903849, Lot 4/SP203074, 2(b) - Processing, in a year, the following quantities of Lot 81/SP253018 mineral products, other than coke - more than 100,000t ERA 33 - Crushing, milling, grinding or screening Lot 234/CP903849, Lot 321/CNT1652, Lot 38/CTN1559, Crushing, grinding, milling or screening more than 5000t Lot 4/SP203074, Lot 42/CTN1904, Lot 5/SP144771, Lot of material in a year 57/CTN1559 ERA 38 - Surface coating Lot 4/SP203074 2 - Coating, painting or powder coating, using, in a year, more than 100t of surface coating materials ERA 47 - Timber milling and wood chipping Lot 234/CP903849, Lot 38/CTN1559, Lot 42/CTN1904, (a) - Milling, in a year, the following total quantity of Lot 5/SP144771, Lot 57/CTN1559 timber - 5000t to 10,000t ERA 50 - Mineral and bulk material handling Lot 194/CTN1105, Lot 2/RP613635, Lot 3/CTN2051, Lot 1(a) - Loading or unloading 100t or more of minerals in 321/CNT1652, Lot 4/SP203074, Lot 52/CTN1105, Lot a day, other than loading or unloading mentioned in item 76/CTN2051, Lot 78/CTN1295 3, or storing 50,000t or more of minerals - within 5km of the highest astronomical tide or 1km of a watercourse ERA 50 - Mineral and bulk material handling Lot 194/CTN1105, Lot 2/RP613635, Lot 3/CTN2051, Lot 2 - Loading or unloading 100t or more of bulk materials 321/CNT1652, Lot 4/SP203074, Lot 52/CTN1105, Lot in a day, other than loading or unloading mentioned in 76/CTN2051, Lot 78/CTN1295 item 3, or storing bulk materials ERA 60 - Waste disposal Lot 10/CL40376, Lot 188/CL4083, Lot 21/CTN1199, Lot 1(d) - Operating a facility for disposing of, in a year, the 234/CP903849, Lot 275/CL40102, Lot 320/CTN1607, following quantity of waste mentioned in subsection Lot 348/CTN1664, Lot 38/CTN1559, Lot 4/SP203074, (1)(a) - more than 200,000t Lot 42/CTN1852, Lot 42/CTN1904, Lot 5/SP144771, Lot 57/CTN1559 ERA 62 - Resource recovery and transfer facility Lot 234/CP903849, Lot 3/CTN2051 operation 1(d) - Operating a facility for receiving and sorting, dismantling, baling or temporarily storing category 1 regulated waste ERA 62 - Resource recovery and transfer facility Lot 234/CP903849, Lot 3/CTN2051 operation 1(c) - Operating a facility for receiving and sorting, dismantling, baling or temporarily storing category 2 regulated waste ERA 62 - Resource recovery and transfer facility Lot 234/CP903849 operation 1(b) - Operating a facility for receiving and sorting, dismantling, baling or temporarily storing general waste ERA 63 - Sewage Treatment Lot 3/CTN2051, Lot 4/SP203074, Lot 5/SP144771, Lot 1(c) - Operating sewage treatment works, other than no- 57/CTN1559 release works, with a total daily peak design capacity of more than 1500 but not more than 4000EP

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Additional information for applicants Environmentally relevant activities The description of any environmentally relevant activity (ERA) for which an environmental authority (EA) is issued is a restatement of the ERA as defined by legislation at the time the EA is issued. Where there is any inconsistency between that description of an ERA and the conditions stated by an EA as to the scale, intensity or manner of carrying out an ERA, the conditions prevail to the extent of the inconsistency. An EA authorises the carrying out of an ERA and does not authorise any environmental harm unless a condition stated by the EA specifically authorises environmental harm. A person carrying out an ERA must also be a registered suitable operator under the Environmental Protection Act 1994 (EP Act). Contaminated land It is a requirement of the EP Act that an owner or occupier of land give written notice to the administering authority if they become aware of the following: - the presence of, or happening of an event involving, a hazardous contaminant on the land that is causing, or is reasonably likely to cause, serious or material environmental harm (notice must be given within 24 hours); or - if the land is contaminated land - a change in the condition of the land that is causing, or is reasonably likely to cause, serious or material environmental harm (notice must be given within 24 hours); or - a notifiable activity (as defined in Schedule 3) having been carried out, or is being carried out, on the land (notice must be given within 20 business days). For further information, including the form for giving written notice, refer to the Queensland Government website www.qld.gov.au, using the search term `duty to notify'.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Take effect Please note that, in accordance with section 200(1) of the EP Act, an EA has effect: (a) if the authority is for a prescribed ERA and it states that it takes effect on the day nominated by the holder of the authority in a written notice given to the administering authority--on the nominated day; or (b) if the authority states a day or an event for it to take effect--on the stated day or when the stated event happens; or (c) otherwise--on the day the authority is issued. However, in accordance with section 200(2) of the EP Act, the day that the EA takes effect may not be before: (a) if the authority is for a resource activity--the day the relevant tenure is granted to the applicant; or (b) if a development permit for a material change of use of premises under the Planning Act 2016 is necessary for carrying out an activity that related to the authority--the day the development permit takes effect; or (c) if an SDA Approval under the State Development and Public Works Organisation Act 1971 is necessary for carrying out an activity that relates to the authority--the day the approval takes effect. If this EA takes effect when the additional authorisation takes effect, you must provide the administering authority written notice within 5 business days of receiving notification of the related additional authorisation taking effect. The anniversary day of this EA is the same day each year as the effective date. The payment of the annual fee will be due each year on this day. If you have incorrectly claimed that an additional authorisation is not required, carrying out the ERA without the additional authorisation is not legal and could result in your prosecution for providing false or misleading information or operating without a valid EA. 19 March 2026 Signature Date Sara Staunton Enquiries: Delegate of the administering authority PO Box 7230, Cairns QLD 4870 Environmental Protection Act 1994 Phone: (07) 4222 5352 Email: ESCairns@detsi.qld.gov.au

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Obligations under the Environmental Protection Act 1994 In addition to the requirements found in the conditions of this EA, the holder must also meet their obligations under the EP Act, and the regulations made under the EP Act. For example, the holder must comply with the following provisions of the Act: - general environmental duty (section 319) - duty to restore the environment (section 319C) - duty to notify environmental harm (section 320-320G) - offence of causing serious or material environmental harm (sections 437-439) - offence of causing environmental nuisance (section 440) - offence of depositing prescribed water contaminants in waters and related matters (section 440ZG) - offence to place contaminant where environmental harm or nuisance may be caused (section 443). Other permits required This permit only provides an approval under the EP Act. In order to lawfully operate you may also require permits / approvals from your local government authority, other business units within the department, and other State and Federal Government agencies prior to commencing any activity at the site. For example, this may include permits or approvals with your local Council (for planning approval), the Department of Transport and Main Roads (to access State controlled roads), the Department of Natural Resources and Mines, Manufacturing, and Regional and Rural Development (to clear vegetation), and the Department of Primary Industries (to clear marine plants or to obtain a quarry material allocation). Obligations under the Environment Protection and Biodiversity Conservation Act 1999 (EPBC Act) Matters of national environmental significance (MNES) are regulated under the Commonwealth EPBC Act rather than under state legislation. You may need to submit a referral if your project potentially impacts any matters protected under the EPBC Act. For more information on self-assessments, and referral and assessment processes, please visit the Australian Government Department of Climate Change, Energy, the Environment and Water's website at www.dcceew.gov.au/environment/epbc/advice. Obligations under the Mining and Quarrying Safety and Health Act 1999 If you are operating a quarry, other than a sand and gravel quarry where there is no crushing capability, you will be required to comply with the Mining and Quarrying Safety and Health Act 1999. For more information on your obligations under this legislation, visit Resources Safety and Health Queensland's website at www.rshq.qld.gov.au, or call 13 QGOV (13 74 68) or your local Mines Inspectorate Office. Development approval This permit is not a development approval under the Planning Act 2016. The conditions of this EA are separate, and in addition to, any conditions that may be on the development approval. If a copy of this EA is attached to a development Science and Innovation to ensure that you have the most current version of the EA relating to this site. Obligations under the Aboriginal Cultural Heritage Act 2003 and Torres Strait Islander Cultural Heritage Act 2003 (the Cultural Heritage Acts) The Cultural Heritage Acts require anyone who carries out a land-use activity to exercise a duty of care. This `duty of care' means land users must take all reasonable and practicable measures to ensure their activity does not harm Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander cultural heritage, and applies to any activity where Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander cultural heritage is located. For more information on your obligations under this legislation, please visit the Department of Women, Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Partnerships and Multiculturalism webpage at, www.dwatsipm.qld.gov.au.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Conditions of environmental authority The environmentally relevant activities conducted at the locations described above must be conducted in accordance with the following site-specific conditions of approval. This environmental authority consists of the following: - Schedule G - General - Schedule N - Acoustic - Schedule A - Air - Schedule L - Land - Schedule W - Water - Definitions - Appendices

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Schedule G - General G1 All reasonable and practicable measures must be taken to minimise the likelihood of environmental harm being caused. G2 All information and records required by the conditions of this environmental authority must be kept for a period of at least five (5) years and provided to the administering authority in the specified format upon request. G3 An Environmental Management System (EMS) that includes all the requirements of and conforms to AS/NZS ISO 14001:2004 (Environmental Management Systems - requirements with guidance for use) or more recent versions must be implemented. G4 The administering authority must be notified by telephone as soon as practicable, but within twelve (12) hours of becoming aware of any emergency, event or incident which: (a) results in the release of contaminants not in accordance with, or reasonably expected to be not in accordance with, the conditions of this environmental authority; and (b) has the potential to cause material or serious environmental harm. Note: The Pollution Hotline is the most appropriate after-hours contact. G5 All other breaches not in accordance with or reasonably expected not to be in accordance with the conditions of this environmental authority must be reported to the administering authority within twenty-four (24) hours or the next business day. G6 A monthly compliance report outlining the following must be submitted to the administering authority within twenty (20) business days of the end of each month: (a) the date and time of initial notifications reported to the administering authority as required by (G4) and (G5); (b) complaint information as required by conditions (G15) and (N2) received in the month; (c) visible dust events report as required by condition (A12) and (A13); and (d) a summary of the month's non-compliances with the environmental authority including written advice detailing the below information regarding any notification in accordance with condition (G4) and (G5): i. the name of the holder of the environmental authority and the environmental authority number; ii. the name and telephone number of a designated contact person; iii. the location of the release/event; iv. the time and date of the release/event; v. the time the holder became aware of the release/event; vi. the suspected cause of the release/event; vii. details of the approximate quantity of substance released; viii. details of the area/location impacted by the release/event; ix. a description of the resulting effects of the release/event; x. the results of any sampling performed in relation to the release/event; xi. actions taken to mitigate any environmental harm (including environmental nuisance) caused by the release/event; and xii. proposed actions to prevent a recurrence of the release/event. G7 All instruments, equipment and measuring devices used for measuring or monitoring must be calibrated, operated and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications and/or reference method requirements and/or NATA requirements.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 G8 All Continuous Environmental Monitoring Systems required by this environmental authority must have an instrument availability of at least 80% except for the continuous monitoring of release points in Schedule 2, Table 2 (Required release point determinations) which must have an instrument availability of at least 90%. G9 All analysis and tests required under this environmental authority must be carried out by a laboratory that has NATA certification for such analysis and tests. The only exception to this condition is for the in-situ monitoring of: (a) physicochemical parameters in waters, sediment and soil samples for pH, temperature, turbidity, electrical conductivity, dissolved oxygen, and volumetric flow; (b) wind speed, wind direction, rainfall, air temperature and relative humidity; (c) gas velocity, volumetric flow rates, temperature and moisture content in stacks; and (d) noise level descriptors such as LA10, LA90, LAeq, LAmax, LCpeak and 1/3rd octave frequency; and (e) event-based Direct Toxicity Assessment required under conditions W8 and W9. G10 Records and raw data relating to the accuracy, precision, and reliability of the results of monitoring required by this environmental authority must be kept. This includes, but is not limited to: (a) records taken in the field during sampling; (b) chain of custody documentation for samples taken; (c) calibration records; (d) raw data; and (e) laboratory analysis reports. G11 An Emergency Incident Response Plan must be implemented that complies with ISO14001. The Emergency Incident Response Plan must be reviewed within three (3) months of completion of the Emissions Verification Study required by condition (A10) and (A11) to incorporate any change (new or increased) in hazards identified through the study G12 The holder must maintain a capability of reporting to the administering authority within three hours of any air emission incident that has the potential for, adverse impacts beyond the site boundary. The report must detail the source, potential path and the approximate dispersion concentration for contaminants within the plume that present a risk of material environmental harm and be made available to the administering authority and other emergency services agencies. G13 The holder must: (a) Obtain from a suitably qualified third party auditor a report on compliance with the conditions of this environmental authority on or before 30 August 2016, and every three (3) years thereafter; (b) provide each report to the administering authority within twenty-eight (28) business days of its completion; and (c) accompany each report with a statutory declaration from the auditor, stating that the report accurately represents the findings of the auditor and that the report has been prepared independently of the holder and is the independently held opinion of the auditor. G14 The scale of the alumina refinery and associated environmentally relevant activities authorised under this environmental authority is the scale indicated in the application information titled "2013 QAL Major Amendment Application" and the intensity of use for the environmentally relevant activities is for the production of not more than 4.5 million tonnes of alumina per calendar year.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 G15 The holder must record the following details for all complaints received and provide this information to the administering authority with each month's compliance report: (a) time, date, name and contact details of the complainant (name when authorised by the complainant); (b) reasons for the complaint; (c) response and any investigations undertaken; (d) conclusions formed; (e) grounds for forming the conclusions; and (f) any actions taken as a result of the complaint G16 When requested by the administering authority, monitoring must be undertaken by an appropriately qualified person(s) to investigate any complaint of alleged environmental nuisance caused by a release from the site at any sensitive receptor. The request may outline: (a) When the monitoring must be commenced; (b) The duration of the monitoring; (c) The methods and relevant standard to be complied with; (d) Any evaluation, inspection and review of potential dust, particulate matter, odour or other noxious/ offensive emission sources and associated pollution control systems; (e) Any review and interpretation of monitoring results; (f) Any modelling required; and (g) The date, the results and analysis is to be submitted to the administering authority G17 Irrespective of any release limits in this environmental authority, the holder must not cause environmental nuisance. Note: In the first instance the matter will be responded to via the QAL complaint procedure and managed via the QAL Environment Management System. G18 By 31 December 2026 an Asset Management System (AMS) that includes all the requirements of and conforms to AS/NZS ISO55001:2014 (Asset management - Management systems - Requirements) or more recent versions must be prepared and implemented. G19 The AMS required by condition G18 must be reviewed and certified as conforming with ISO 55001 by an appropriately qualified person: (a) who is independent of the EA holder and any shareholder of the EA holder; and (b) with demonstrated skills and experience in alumina refinery operations, ISO 14001 Environmental Management System and ISO 9001:2015 Quality Management System; and (c) who is a practicing professional engineer, or (d) as agreed with the administering authority. G20 The AMS required by condition G18 must cover the entire lifecycle of assets associated with plant and equipment, including, but not limited to the assets used in the carrying out of environmentally relevant activities under this Environmental Authority which involve either: (a) handling of hazardous chemicals; and/or (b) the application of high temperature and pressure. G21 On or before 31 December 2026 and at least every 3 years thereafter, the holder must ensure that the AMS required by G18 will be independently reviewed by an appropriately qualified person in accordance with G19. A copy of the certification report and the accompanying statutory declaration will be provided to the administering authority within 28 days of the completion of the review by the qualified person.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 G22 The Strategic Asset Management Plan (SAMP) must be amended within 30 days of each review as required to ensure compliance with the conditions of the EA.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Schedule N - Acoustic N1 Noise levels must comply with Table 8 (Attended noise measurement locations and limits) and the associated requirements. Associated requirements: 1. Monitoring must be undertaken annually in winter by an appropriately qualified person(s) at all attended noise monitoring locations in Table 8 (Attended noise measurement locations and limits) and as referenced in Schedule 1 Figure 7 (Attended noise monitoring locations). 2. The method of measurement and reporting of noise levels must comply with the latest edition of the administering authority's Noise Measurement Manual. N2 All noise complaints of environmental nuisance must be reported to the administering authority in the monthly compliance report as required by condition (G6). The report must include all requirements of condition (G15) and the continuous monitoring records as well as other relevant noise monitoring records taken at the time of the complaint. N3 Noise must be continuously monitored at the locations and comply with the associated requirements as specified in Table 9 (Continuous noise measurement location). Associated requirements include: (a) instrumentation that is on-line, real-time, contain noise source detection (audio) and be able to be recorded; (b) the noise level measured is LAeq,adj,15 mins; and (c) the method of measurement and reporting of noise levels must comply with the latest edition of the administering authority's Noise Measurement Manual. N4 Monitoring must be undertaken by an appropriately qualified person(s) during blasting activities and blasting must not exceed the following when monitored at the nearest dwelling: (a) the air blast overpressure must not exceed more than 115dB Z Peak for 4 out of any 5 consecutive blasts; (b) the air blast overpressure must not exceed more than 120dB Z Peak from any single blast; and (c) the ground vibration is: i. for vibrations of more than 35Hz--more than 25mm a second ground vibration, peak particle velocity; or ii. for vibrations of no more than 35Hz--more than 10mm a second ground vibration, peak particle velocity. N5 Blasting must not occur on Sundays and public holidays. Blasting can only occur during the hours of 8:00am to 5:00pm Monday to Friday and 9:00am to 3:00pm on Saturdays.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Table 8 Attended noise measurement locations and limits Noise Limits Attended noise monitoring Attended noise monitoring locations Daytime Evening and Night- time locations (Eastings and Northings) 7am - 6pm (same day) 6pm - 7am (next day) N1 Noise level measured LAeq,adj,15 mins N - 7360649.585, E - 324397.467 55 dB(A) 50 dB(A) N2 N - 7360132.124, E - 324070.421 55 dB(A) 50 dB(A) N3 N - 7359328.387, E - 323842.531 55 dB(A) 50 dB(A) N4 N - 7357979.739, E - 324307.369 55 dB(A) 50 dB(A) Table 9 Continuous noise measurement location Location descriptor Noise measured at a set location (Eastings and Northings) Barney Point (Scout Hall) N - 7360394.091 E - 324213.872

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Schedule A - Air A1 A weather monitoring station must be maintained which measures and records the following meteorological parameters: (a) air temperature; (b) relative humidity; (c) wind direction; (d) wind speed; and (e) rainfall. A2 Contaminants must only be released to the atmosphere from the release points identified in Schedule 2, Table 1 (Contaminant release limits to air). A3 Dilution air must not be added after the exit of the Induced Draft Fan on Boilers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, Calciners 1, 2, 3 and Lurgi Calciner and after the exit of the Furnace on Package Boilers 1, 2, 3. Note: The intent of this condition is to avoid addition of dilution air to meet emission concentration limits. A4 Contaminants must not be released to the atmosphere at a concentration calculated over the averaging period, as measured at a monitoring point, in excess of that stated in Schedule 2, Table 1 (Contaminant release limits to air). A5 Contaminants must be monitored at the minimum frequency specified in Schedule 2, Table 2 (Required release point determinations). A6 Monitoring of any releases to the atmosphere required by a condition of this environmental authority must be carried out in accordance with the following requirements: (a) monitoring provisions for the release points listed in Schedule 2, Table 1 (Contaminant release limits to air) must comply with the Australian Standard AS 4323.1 - 1995 `Stationary source emissions Method 1: Selection of sampling positions' (or more recent editions); (b) all determinations of contaminant releases to the atmosphere must be made by an appropriately qualified person(s) and in accordance with methods prescribed in the most recent version of the administering authority's Air Quality Sampling Manual or other method stated in Table 3 (Contaminant determination methods); (c) samples must be taken when emissions are expected to be representative of actual operating conditions for the sample frequency period; (d) during the sampling period, the following additional information must be gathered: i. emission source related production rates at the time of sampling and detailed commentary on the stability of the related process leading up to (at least twenty - four (24) hours) and during the time of sampling; and ii. any other factors that may influence air emissions (e.g. changes to operating conditions). (e) the following minimum test must be performed for each required determination specified in Schedule 2, Table 1 (Contaminant release limits to air): i. gas velocity and volume flow rate; ii. temperature; and iii. water vapour concentration. A7 A maintenance program must be developed that provides an inventory of what air pollution control equipment needs to be maintained, identifies the standard and frequency to which it will be maintained and keeps a history of the maintenance performed.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 A8 Where pollution control systems are installed to treat exhaust gases, dust and vapours: (a) they must be maintained and operated in accordance with the manufacturer's operating instructions and manufacturer's specifications; and (b) for fabric filter dust collectors, replacement bags must be available and the collectors must, at all times: i. be fitted with a device (e.g. differential pressure sensor) installed across the boundary of the active filter bags to detect filter medium breakthrough; and ii. have a monitoring system including an alarm, installed and operating to alert of filter medium breakthrough. A9 Where monitoring of air pollution control equipment indicates impeded operational performance of pollution control equipment, standby systems must operate to ensure continuous operation of the air pollution control system or the plant serviced by the air pollution control systems must be safely shut down as soon as practicable, unless otherwise agreed by the administering authority. A10 All complaints of visible dust events must be notified to the administering authority within twenty- four (24) hours or on the next business day. A11 A report detailing the occurrence of each visible dust event in condition (A12) must be submitted to the administering authority in the monthly compliance report with the following information: (a) time and date of the event; (b) the dust source; (c) relevant operations occurring at the time; (d) nearest sensitive place at the time of the event; (e) wind speed and direction; (f) remedial action taken; and (g) details of any complaints if received. A12 The holder must, when requested in writing by the administering authority, contribute to the undertaking of an ambient air monitoring program in consultation with the administering authority. A13 A dust and/or particulate matter monitoring program that complies with Schedule 2, Table 4 (Dust and/or particulate matter monitoring program) and Schedule 1, Figure 6 (Ambient dust monitoring locations) must be undertaken by an appropriately qualified person(s). A14 The release of dust and/or particulate matter as a result of the environmentally relevant activities to which this environmental authority relates must not exceed the limits stated in Schedule 2, Table 4 (Dust and/or particulate matter monitoring program). A15 It is not a contravention of condition (A16) if it can be shown that other site(s), not impacted by the environmentally relevant activities to which this environmental authority relates, but is representative of background condition, is also in exceedance of these limits. A16 The burning of flammable substances during firefighting training exercises must only be conducted at times when prevailing wind conditions are least likely to cause an environmental nuisance at a nuisance sensitive place. A17 The administering authority must be notified before burning any alternative fuel other than the following: (a) coal, natural gas, diesel, fuel oil; and (b) hydrocarbon contaminated coal, recycled oils, greases and degreasers.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Table 3 Contaminant determination methods Test Method Parameter Gas Velocity, Volumetric Flow Rate and Temperature USEPA Method 2 AS 4323.1 Moisture Content Oxygen (O2) USEPA Method 4 Carbon Dioxide (CO2) Oxides of Nitrogen (NO, NO2 and NOx) USEPA Method 3A Particulates (TSP) Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane USEPA Method 3A equivalent Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) USEPA Method 7E Cadmium AS 4323.2 Mercury USEPA Method 25A USEPA SW-846 Method 0031 USEPA Method 6C USEPA Method 8 USEPA Method 29 USEPA Method 29 USEPA Method 30B

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Schedule L - Land L1 There must be no release of contaminants to land other than: (a) spillage of process contaminants that will be contained within the on-site process containment system as identified in Schedule 1, Figure 1 (Process Containment System); and (b) process residue authorised by condition (L8) to be placed in the Residue disposal areas. L2 All flammable and combustible liquids must be stored and handled in accordance with AS1940 Storage and Handling of Flammable and Combustible Liquids. L3 Any liquids stored on site must: (a) be stored in and serviced by a containment system that is impervious to the materials stored; (b) be controlled in a manner that minimises the risk of any release to land; and (c) in the event of an accidental release to land, be promptly removed from the ground and the affected area be remediated (including the removal of impacted soil where necessary) to minimise any residual contamination. Note: It is recognised that pre-existing contamination listed on the Contaminated Sites Register is being managed under a Contamination Management Plan. This includes annual reporting of groundwater monitoring as per condition (W28) and an on- going maintenance program for concrete slab repairs. L4 Containment systems must: (a) have storage capacity sufficient to contain at least 110% of a single storage tank; and (b) be maintained and have storage capacity sufficient to contain 100% of the largest storage tank plus 10% of the second largest storage tank in multiple storage areas; and (c) for drum storages be bunded and maintained so that the capacity of the bund is sufficient to contain at least 110% of the largest drum stored or 25% of the total volume stored in drums whichever is greater; or (d) for excess liquor from any storage tank failure that enters the East Contaminants Pond be managed within the East Contaminants, Neutralising and Tidal Pond network consistent with the procedures in the QAL Business Resilience Management Plan. L5 Acid sulfate soils must be managed in accordance with the Queensland Acid Sulfate Soil Technical Manual and Soil Management Guidelines 2002 such that contaminants are not directly or indirectly released, as a result of the activity, to any waters or the bed and banks of any waters.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 L6 Subject to the exemption below, as soon as practicable, but no later than six (6) months after completing extraction activities, areas disturbed as a result of extractive and screening activities must be rehabilitated by: (a) undertaking works to establish a safe, stable, non-polluting landform similar to that of surrounding undisturbed areas (or other use as agreed with the landowner), including where relevant; (b) removing any stockpiles; (c) re-establishing surface drainage lines; (d) minimising the potential for slumping, subsidence or erosion; (e) reinstating the topsoil if area is going to be revegetated; (f) respreading any cleared vegetation; (g) promoting establishment of vegetation of similar species composition and density of cover; (h) ensuring that the quality of stormwater, water and seepage released from the disturbed areas is such that there is no release of prescribed water contaminants; (i) ensuring that the water quality of any residual water bodies meets criteria for subsequent uses and does not cause environmental harm; and (j) removing infrastructure from the site. Note: Where the areas disturbed as a result of extractive and screening activities are to be included in the future residue management area dam, specifically for the placement of residue, the holder must only comply with part (c) and (d) of this condition. L7 The Residue disposal areas must be wholly located within the control points defined in Table 11 (Location of Residue disposal areas) and as shown in Schedule 1, Figure 2 (Residue disposal area Location - Ash Dam), Schedule 1, Figure 3 (Residue disposal area Location - Mineral Waste Disposal Facility), Schedule 1, Figure 4 (Residue disposal area Location - Asbestos Landfill) and Schedule 1, Figure 5 (Residue disposal area Location - Red Mud Dam). L8 The Residue disposal areas must comply with the basic details in Schedule 2, Table 12 (Basic Details of Residue Areas). L9 The Regulated dams must meet the hydraulic performance criteria specified in Schedule 2, Table 13 (Hydraulic Performance of Regulated dams). L10 The Residue disposal areas assessed as Regulated dams must be constructed in accordance with a certified design plan that has been submitted to the administering authority and such that the resulting dam will deliver the performance stated in that submitted design plan and that dam is compliant in all respects with this environmental authority. L11 Construction and operation, including any modification or lift of the residue areas assessed as Regulated dams, must not be commenced unless: (a) the holder has submitted to the administering authority two (2) copies of a design plan, together with the certification of a suitably qualified and experienced person that the design of the Regulated dams will deliver the performance stated in that submitted design plan and that dam is compliant in all respects with this environmental authority; and (b) at least twenty (20) business days has passed since the receipt of those documents, or the administering authority notifies the holder that a design plan and certification has been submitted for that dam.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 L12 When construction, including any modification or lift of the Regulated dams, is complete, the holder must submit to the administering authority two (2) copies of a set of `as constructed' drawings, together with the certification of a suitably qualified and experienced person that the dam `as constructed' will deliver the performance stated in that submitted design plan and that dam is compliant in all respects with this environmental authority. L13 An operational plan must be kept current for the Residue disposal areas which are assessed as Regulated dams. L14 Where an operational plan covers decommissioning and rehabilitation, the operational plan must be consistent with the design plan of the Regulated dams and the rehabilitation requirements of this environmental authority. L15 The administering authority must be notified as soon as possible, but within 24 hours, of the level in the Red Mud Dam reaching the mandatory reporting level (MRL). L16 The Regulated dams must be inspected annually by a suitably qualified and experienced person. At each annual inspection, the condition and adequacy of all components of the Regulated dams must be assessed: (a) against the most recent hazard assessment report and design plan; (b) against recommendations contained in previous annual inspections reports; (c) to ensure that the dams can continue to perform their planned functions in a safe and satisfactory manner; (d) for changes in circumstances potentially leading to a change in hazard category; (e) for conformance with the conditions of this environmental authority; (f) for conformance with the `as constructed' drawings of the certified design plan; and (g) for the adequacy of the available storage in each dam, based on an actual observation or observations taken no more than three months prior to 1 November of each year, of accumulated residue, state of the containment barrier and the level of liquids against the height of spillway in the dams. L17 By the 1st of November each year, a mandatory reporting level must be determined and marked on the Red Mud Dam. L18 A final assessment of adequacy of available storage in the Red Mud Dam must be based on a dam level observed within the month of October each year and result in an estimate of the level in that dam as at 1 November each year. L19 For each annual inspection, a report on the condition and adequacy of the regulated dams, certified by the suitably qualified and experienced person and including any recommended actions to be taken to ensure the integrity of the regulated dams, must be provided to the administering authority by 1 December each year. L20 A Decommissioning Strategy for the Residue disposal areas must be documented and submitted to the administering authority by 31 August 2020. L21 The holder must: (a) review the Decommissioning Strategy every seven (7) years and submit the updated strategy to the administering authority in that year; (b) decommission the Residue disposal areas in accordance with the Decommissioning Strategy current at the time of decommissioning; and (c) ensure that upon cessation of operation of the Residue disposal areas, they are maintained so as to avoid environmental harm until that area is decommissioned.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 L22 Each regulated dam must be decommissioned such that it complies with the rehabilitation requirements of this environmental authority and: (a) becomes a stable landform, that no longer contains flowable substances; and/or (b) becomes a void authorised by the administering authority to remain after decommissioning; or (c) the dams' contents are approved or authorised under relevant legislation for a beneficial use. L23 Leachate must not be released to any surface waters, the bed or banks of any such waters or to any sedimentation pond used for the treatment and/or storage of stormwater runoff from the Ash Pond. L24 A leachate collection system must: (a) be installed and maintained to effectively and efficiently collect leachate generated in each operational landfill unit; (b) not result in the release to surface waters or any ponds used for the treatment and/or storage of stormwater runoff; and (c) be developed by an appropriately qualified person(s) possessing appropriate qualifications and experience in the field of waste management including hydrogeology and geotechnical engineering to be able to competently make recommendations about these matters. L25 An Operational Management Plan for the Mineral Waste Disposal Facility must be developed and implemented, which addresses but is not limited to the following: (a) expected life span of the facility and strategies to optimise volume of waste to facility; (b) a leachate collection system as required under condition (L24) including operational and maintenance protocols for management of this system; (c) operational and maintenance protocols for the management of the facility, including operational controls to reduce generation of dust from the facility; and (d) routine inspections to ensure the facility is operating in accordance with the Operational Management Plan. L26 All forms of asbestos waste generated by the QAL refinery must be disposed to a designated asbestos landfill unit that is separate to other waste disposal areas.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 L27 A Final Land Use and Rehabilitation Plan must be developed for Residue Disposal Areas, the sand ponds and historical landfills 1, 2, 3 and 4 areas. The plan must be submitted to the administering authority by 31 August 2020, and must address at least the following: (a) decommissioning planning including: i. disturbance type and disturbance area and land use after operations cease; ii. proposed acceptance criteria including final surface level and contours, final drainage system, landform geotechnical stability criteria including surface settlement, sustainability of drainage works, susceptibility to erosion processes, leachate production, and surface water contamination; iii. species of vegetation to be planted for the rehabilitation program taking into consideration the surrounding land use; iv. receiving and run-off water standards; and v. indicators for success; (b) the design of a final cover system including thickness and permeability of cover layers and any lateral drainage layers and infrastructure systems for stormwater and leachate management; (c) erosion prevention systems to minimise erosion and to minimise water ponding; (d) rehabilitation trials based on the requirements addressed in L27(a), (b) and (c); (e) revegetation and stabilisation program to minimise final cover erosion (for the mineral waste disposal facility and historic landfills, final cover species root penetration must not occur through to the waste pile); (f) procedures for maintaining and operating any stormwater management system and leachate collection system; (g) total waste volumes or tonnage of the residue disposal facility being closed; and (h) measures and schedule timeframes for: i. the implementation and maintenance of a final cover system, including effective drainage systems to minimise erosion and water ponding; ii. monitoring of any leachate, surface water, receiving water and groundwater monitoring system at a frequency sufficient to detect any release of contaminants to water resources; iii. monitoring of the structural integrity and effectiveness of the final cover system, particularly for erosion and subsidence of the cover system; iv. an action plan to address knowledge gaps where further information is required to address the above requirements; v. a stabilisation program including practicable measures for revegetation and or mulching; and vi. inspection every four (4) years by a suitably qualified and experienced person and the preparation of annual rehabilitation progress reports. Note: The holder must ensure that the Final Land Use and Rehabilitation Plan includes all relevant and available information. Where specific details required to address a particular requirement of condition L27 are not fully known, the holder must identify all knowledge gaps for the particular requirement and provide an action plan to address the knowledge gaps. The holder must progressively update the plan, in accordance with condition L28(a), as the knowledge gaps are addressed.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 L28 The holder must: (a) submit any amendments to the Final Land Use and Rehabilitation Plan to the administering authority; (b) 5 years prior to closure of each of the Residue disposal areas, the sand ponds or historic landfills 1,2,3 and 4 areas, ensure that all knowledge gaps identified in the Final Land Use and Rehabilitation Plan in relation to that particular area are addressed in accordance with condition L27. (c) ensure that all Residue disposal areas, sands ponds and historical landfills 1, 2, 3 and 4 areas are rehabilitated in accordance with the acceptance criteria, referred to in the report provided in condition (L27); (d) submit an annual rehabilitation progress report to the administering authority once the final land use and rehabilitation plan is implemented at the closure of the each of the Residue disposal areas, the sand ponds and historical landfills 1, 2, 3 and 4 areas. The report should be provided by the 17 January each year, until the environmental authority is surrendered or the administering authority advises that this reporting is no longer required (whichever is the earlier); and (e) for the purposes of preventing and/or minimising the likelihood of environmental harm being caused as a result of deposition of waste, the holder, following cessation of deposition of waste in a Residue disposal area, conduct post closure management measures identified in the Final Land Use and Rehabilitation Plan under condition (L27) for: i. a period of 30 years; or ii. such shorter period until it is demonstrated to the administering authority in a competent manner using factually correct information that the Residue disposal area and surrounding site are geotechnically stable and that no release of waste materials, leachate, or other contaminants to the environment is likely. L29 A Waste Management Plan must be developed and implemented which addresses at least the following matters: (a) the types and amounts of wastes generated; (b) how the waste will be dealt with, including a description of the types and amounts of waste that will be dealt with under each of the waste management practices mentioned in the waste management hierarchy (Waste Reduction and Recycling Act 2011); (c) procedures for identifying and implementing opportunities to improve the waste management practices employed; (d) procedures for auditing waste loads; (e) how often the performance of the waste management practices will be assessed, at least annually; and (f) operation and maintenance of a weighbridge facility to enable monitoring and recording of mineral wastes to the mineral waste disposal facility, and other wastes to be handled by the on-site Waste Transfer Facility.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Schedule W - Water W1 Contaminant(s) must only be released to waters at the locations and in accordance with the contaminant release conditions mentioned in Schedule 2, Table 5 (Contaminants, sources, locations of releases to waters, release limits and monitoring). W1a Notwithstanding any other condition of this Environmental Authority, contaminant releases to waters must not cause environmental harm. W2 Monitoring of contaminants released to waters must be undertaken by an appropriately qualified Person(s) for parameters, at the locations and at the minimum frequencies specified in Schedule 2, Table 5 (Contaminants, sources, locations of releases to waters, release limits and monitoring). W3 There must be no visible hydrocarbon sheen released from authorised release points in Schedule 2, Table 5 (Contaminants, sources, locations of releases to waters, release limits and monitoring). W4 Measurements of volumes released from discharge locations mentioned in Schedule 2, Table 5 (Contaminants, sources, locations of releases to waters, release limits and monitoring) must be determined by an appropriate method with an accuracy of +/-10%, (e.g. a calibrated flow meter). W5 Monitoring and sampling must be carried out in accordance with written procedures and must address the requirements of the latest version of the following documents unless otherwise approved by the administering authority: (a) for waters and aquatic environments, the Queensland Government's Monitoring and Sampling Manual 2009 - Environmental Protection (Water) Policy 2009; (b) for groundwater, Groundwater Sampling and Analysis - A Field Guide (2009:27 GeoCat#6890.1) and Australian Standard AS/NZS 5667.11:1998 Water Quality - Sampling - Guidance on sampling of groundwaters. W6 The pH of discharge from the intermittent discharge locations in Schedule 2, Table 5 (Contaminants, sources, locations of releases to waters, release limits and monitoring) must be: (a) monitored by an appropriately qualified person(s); (b) monitored every two (2) hours of an incident which results in the release of contaminants not in accordance with or reasonably expected not to be in accordance with the conditions of this environmental authority; and (c) the monitoring must only cease once pH is within the intermittent discharge location limit stated in Schedule 2, Table 5 (Contaminants, sources, locations of releases to waters, release limits and monitoring). W7 A toxicological risk assessment must be undertaken to determine whether any proposed or accidental change to the process (including changes to inputs and/or treatment process) is likely to result in an increased toxicological effect to aquatic organisms in the receiving environment and this assessment must be submitted to the administering authority within thirty (30) business days of the proposed or accidental change occurring. The toxicological risk assessment must focus on identifying wastewater quality or receiving environment conditions that may result in toxicity to biota within the mixing zone and must at least consider the wastewater and receiving water quality, temporal context and include supporting evidence for the outcome of the risk assessment. W8 Where the toxicological risk assessment in condition (W7) determines that an increased toxicological effect may occur, a Direct Toxicity Assessment (DTA) must be undertaken as soon as practicable but within three (3) months of the change occurring. The DTA must be undertaken utilising indicator organism(s) appropriate to the change and must comply with the DTA procedure in condition (W10).

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 W9 An Event-based Direct Toxicity Assessment (Event-based DTA) must be undertaken wherever the maximum dissolved aluminium release limit of 3.0mg/L, indicated in Schedule 2, Table 5 (Contaminants, sources, locations of releases to waters, release limits and monitoring) is exceeded on four (4) consecutive occasions as measured at the RMD2 release point. The DTA must be undertaken utilising indicator organism(s) appropriate to the change and must comply with the DTA procedure in condition (W10). After the third consecutive exceedance, preparations must be made so that should a fourth consecutive exceedance be confirmed, an Event-based DTA can be performed immediately. W10 All DTA's required by this environmental authority must include all information relevant to the DTA, including specific methods and protocols to be adhered to in conducting test water and diluent water collections, field testing and laboratory-based chemical analyses for key water quality parameters, and associated information necessary to determine whether concentrations of contaminants have the potential to be toxic within the receiving environment to any organisms assessed in the DTA. The information to appear in the DTA procedure must be agreed to by the administering authority. W11 The DTA results must be submitted to the administering authority in the form of a DTA Report no more than thirty (30) business days after completion of the DTA tests. The DTA Report must include but not be limited to: (a) providing details in relation to adherence to the administering authority approved DTA Procedure document required under (W10), including details of any deviations from the approved procedures; (b) DTA test results including NOEC, LOEC, and EC10, LC10 (where applicable) for all bioassays; (c) all relevant test sample and diluent collection and delivery details (where applicable) including the time between test sample collection and the commencement of the DTA; (d) details of any manipulation of the test sample or diluent required to establish or re- establish the in situ water quality parameters, or to meet other aims of the assessment; (e) results of the chemical analysis for chemicals of concern (COC) (i.e. the standard metal(loid)s are a minimum requirement in addition to any other parameters indicative of any change), in the test water, and the diluent. It may be necessary for each of the treatments in the dilution series to be analysed for the COC individually, particularly where there may be potential for COC to precipitate or otherwise not demonstrate a linear concentration-dilution relationship; (f) relating the DTA results to the receiving environment based on the most up-to-date understanding of mixing zone and dilution effects under different states of the tidal prism and with the current discharge structure; (g) other expert interpretation of results; and (h) conclusions and recommendations. W12 A diffuser validation report must be submitted to the administering authority within three (3) months of any diffuser structure serving the RMD2 discharge point undergoing any significant structural modification or change in operation. W13 A diffuser inspection must be conducted by appropriately qualified person(s) no less than every two (2) years and maintenance must be undertaken if required, to ensure full functionality of the diffuser with all ports clear and operational as originally designed.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 W14 The holder must develop and implement a Receiving Environment Monitoring Program (REMP) to monitor, identify and describe any adverse impacts to surface water environmental values, water W15 quality and flows, and sediment quality due to the authorised activities. This must include monitoring W16 the effects of the activities on the receiving environment periodically (under natural flow conditions) W17 and while contaminated water is being discharged from the site. For the purposes of the REMP, the W18 receiving environment is the waters of South Trees Inlet and connected or surrounding waters. The REMP should encompass any sensitive receiving waters or environmental values downstream of the W19 authorised activities that will potentially be directly affected by an authorised release of contaminated W20 water. W21 In relation to the REMP required by condition (W14), a report, summarising the findings of the W22 REMP for the previous calendar year (from January to December) must be submitted to the W23 administering authority by the 31 March each year. W24 W25 A Water Management Plan must be developed by an appropriately qualified person(s) and implemented. The plan must address erosion and sediment controls on site to minimise erosion and the release of sediment to receiving waters and contamination of stormwater. Water quality within the mixing zone of the Red Mud Dam discharge points must be monitored in accordance with Schedule 2, Table 6 (Trigger values - Red Mud Dam mixing zone). Where the trigger values identified in Schedule 2, Table 6 (Trigger values - Red Mud Dam mixing zone) are exceeded, the holder must undertake an investigation, which outlines: (a) Details of the investigation carried out; and (b) Actions taken to prevent environmental harm and exceedances of the Water quality objectives outside of the mixing zone. The results of the investigation must be provided to the administering authority within thirty (30) business days of the holder becoming aware of the exceedance, or at a later date agreed in writing by the administering authority. The release of contaminants to groundwater is prohibited. The activity must not cause a deterioration of groundwater quality when measured at any bore listed in Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations, quality characteristics and frequency. Groundwater quality and standing water level must be monitored: (a) at the locations specified in Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations, quality characteristics and frequency; and (b) at the frequencies specified in Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations, quality characteristics and frequency; and (c) for the quality characteristics identified in Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations, quality characteristics and frequency for the hydrogeological feature in which the bore is located. Groundwater measured from any compliance bore specified in Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations and frequency must not exceed the corresponding Limit A/Limit B specified in Table 10 - Groundwater quality limits (compliance bores only) on any three consecutive sampling events. If groundwater contaminant limits specified in Table 10 - Groundwater quality limits (compliance bores only) exceed the corresponding Limit A/Limit B on any three consecutive sampling events, the environmental authority holder must review the source, pathways of the potential impact and effectiveness of seepage management systems and include the review findings in the monthly compliance report as per condition (G6). This ccondition is removed on 19 March 2026. A Groundwater Management Program must be developed, documented and implemented by an appropriately qualified person(s).

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 W26 The Groundwater Management Program required by Condition (W25) must: (a) identify potential sources, mechanisms, and pathways of contamination to groundwater from the activity; and (b) ensure that all potential groundwater impacts due to the activity are identified, monitored and mitigated; and (c) document the sampling and monitoring methodology; and (d) ensure that adequate groundwater monitoring and data analysis is undertaken to achieve the following objectives: a. detect any impacts to groundwater levels due to the activity; b. detect any impacts to groundwater quality due to the activity; c. determine compliance with condition (W40); and (e) include an appropriate quality assurance and quality control program; (f) include a conceptual groundwater model; (g) specify the purpose of each groundwater bore, the monitoring location, quality characteristics and frequency; and (h) include a review process to identify improvements to the program that includes addressing any comments provided by the administering authority. W27 From 30 September 2023, the Groundwater Management Program must be reviewed annually by an appropriately qualified person(s) to determine if it continues to meet the requirements stated in condition (W26). W28 An Annual Groundwater Monitoring Report must be prepared for the period of 1 July to 30 June by an appropriately qualified person(s) and the report submitted to the administering authority each year by 30 September. The report must include but not be limited to: a) an assessment, analysis and interpretation of groundwater quality results from each monitoring event, including time series graph of all data and an assessment of trends in the groundwater quality and level, a graphical comparison with at least the past five (5) years monitoring data; b) recommendation/s of the review that is conducted by the appropriately qualified person(s) under condition W27; c) an assessment, analysis and interpretation of results from Seepage Management Plan required under condition (W42); d) investigation of any potential groundwater quality deterioration when measured at any bore listed in Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations, quality characteristics and frequency; e) an updated list of locations on the contaminated sites register that are managed under the Contamination Management Plan; f) identification of groundwater monitoring locations where results indicate contamination of a parameter in Schedule 2 Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations, monitoring parameters and frequency and details of the scope of investigation(s) that will be/have been conducted that comply with the latest version of the National Environment Protection (assessment of Site Contamination) Measure 1999; and g) a review process to identify improvements to the Seepage Management Plan that includes addressing any comments provided by the appropriately qualified person(s) required under condition W50.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 W29 The construction, maintenance and decommissioning of groundwater monitoring bores must be W30 undertaken in a manner that: W31 (a) prevents contaminants entering the groundwater; and W32 W33 (b) ensures the integrity of the bores to obtain representative groundwater samples from the target W34 aquifer; and W35 (c) maintains the hydrogeological environment within the aquifer. W36 W37 A bore drill log must be kept for each compliance, operational and interpretation groundwater monitoring bore constructed after 30 September 2021, which includes: (a) bore identification reference and geographic coordinate location; (b) specific construction information including but not limited to depth of bore, depth and length of casing, depth and length of screening and bore sealing details; (c) standing groundwater level and water quality parameters including physical parameters and results of laboratory analysis for the possible trigger parameters; (d) lithological data and stratigraphic interpretation by an appropriately qualified person(s) to identify important features associated with groundwater monitoring; and (e) target hydrogeological feature of the bore. Groundwater rise as a result of activities within the Northern Decant Pond, depicted in Figure 5 Residue Disposal Area Location - Red Mud Dam must not cause environmental harm. The holder must prevent the expression of groundwater from the Northern Decant Pond, depicted in Figure 5 Residue Disposal Area Location - Red Mud Dam. By 30 September 2021, a Groundwater Expression Management Plan (GEMP) for the Northern Decant Pond must be developed by an appropriately qualified person(s) and implemented. The GEMP required by condition W33 must, at a minimum: (a) ensure that potential risks due to groundwater rise at the Residue Disposal Area are identified, monitored and mitigated; (b) include commitments detailing: i. control measures to prevent groundwater expression/s; ii. the assessment of the effectiveness of the installed groundwater expression system/s; iii. additional measures required for the collection of groundwater expressions should the current groundwater expression system/s be determined to not be performing as designed; iv. the key outcomes and measurable indicators to determine if the requirements of conditions (W31-W32) have been achieved; (c) include the annual review, analysis and interpretation of the results by an appropriately qualified person(s) of the monitoring data collected in accordance with condition W20; (d) include notification procedures to ensure compliance with conditions G4 and G5. The GEMP required by condition W33 must be reviewed and updated by an appropriately qualified person(s) by 30 November, each year to ensure compliance with condition W34. All seawater intake structures must be equipped with a mesh grate or cage structure designed to minimise the potential for marine fauna becoming impinged onto the mesh or entrained into the pipeline without impeding the functionality of seawater intake. Written notification of the commencement date must be provided to the administering authority at least five (5) business days prior to establishing a new dredging activity.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 W38 Dredge spoil must be directly disposed into a Red Mud Dam specified in Schedule 1, Figure 5 (Residue disposal area Location - Red Mud Dam). W39 Prior to the commencement of a new dredging activity, a Dredge Management Plan (DMP) must be developed and implemented, and the DMP must contain the following: (a) 1. Clearly stated aims and objectives; (b) 2. Description of dredging operation including; i. Type of equipment to be used in dredging; ii. Volume of dredge material to be removed; iii. Duration and timing of the dredging campaign; iv. Methods to be utilised for transporting dredge spoil; and v. Dredge spoil disposal methods; (c) Maps or plans showing: i. Legend, north arrow and scale; ii. Boundaries of dredging operation; iii. Estimated zone of influence of sediment plumes; iv. Location of designated disposal sites; v. Location of sensitive receptors; and vi. All monitoring locations; (d) A detailed description of the sediment plume-associated monitoring program including: i. Monitoring regime and methods; ii. Monitoring sites; (e) Trigger values and associated management actions if trigger values are exceeded. Seepage Management W40 Long term improvement - From 22 December 2023, the environmental authority holder must ensure that groundwater quality is improved in operational bores specified in Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations, quality characteristics and frequency until such time as the groundwater quality is consistent with the quality range reasonably expected to be associated with natural variability. W41 The environmental authority holder must install, operate and maintain Seepage Management System(s) to contain seepage and prevent seepage from all site infrastructure moving beyond the operational bores specified in Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations, quality characteristics and frequency. W42 Seepage generated from the activity must be managed in accordance with a Seepage Management Plan. W43 The Seepage Management Plan must be developed and certified by an appropriately qualified person(s) as compliant with the seepage management conditions of this environmental authority. W44 The Seepage Management Plan and appropriately qualified person(s) certification must be submitted to the department by 22 December 2024.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 W45 The Seepage Management Plan may be amended and takes effect 30 days after submission of the W46 appropriately qualified person(s) certification to the administering authority, where the following have W47 been completed: W48 (a) a certification from an appropriately qualified person(s) that certifies the amended Seepage W49 Management Plan as compliant with the seepage management conditions W40 - W51 of this environmental authority; and (b) an assessment by an appropriately qualified person(s) and an associated substantiation report and certification is completed and submitted to the administering authority. The Seepage Management Plan must: (a) identify origins of saline and/or metalliferous Red Mud Dam drainage and seepage within the Red Mud Dam location as per Figure 5 - Residue disposal area Location - Red Mud Dam and Table 11 - Location of Residue disposal areas, (b) describe the Seepage Management System, and detail each of the constituent seepage controls that form part of the system; and (c) include documentation reasonably required for an independent technical review and substantiation of the plan. The Seepage Management Plan must include design plans for each of the seepage controls that form part of the Seepage Management System. The design plans must: (a) contain the design details for each seepage control; (b) contain `as constructed' drawings certified by the appropriately qualified person(s) for each design; (c) provide specifications for the measures, plant and equipment that form part of the design for each of the seepage controls; (d) include a map or figure to scale that depicts the location and type of seepage control installed/ to be installed; (e) include the operating rules, maintenance and monitoring/checking requirements, predicted performance, outline how performance will be assessed, and include performance validation monitoring for each of the seepage controls; and (f) describe the overall Seepage Management System, and detail how each seepage control forms part of the broader Seepage Management System, including a schematic diagram of interceptions, storages, transfers and disposal facilities. The Seepage Management Plan must: (a) include best practice environmental management controls that effectively capture and contain seepage such that contaminants that will, or have the potential to, cause environmental harm are not released, unless the release is permitted under the conditions of this environmental authority; and (b) include a seepage monitoring program that is designed to detect locations both on and off the site boundaries, where seepage may express at the surface, and locations where seepage may not be captured within the Seepage Management System. All recovered seepage must be returned to a structure or facility lawfully authorised to receive the seepage.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 W50 Annually an appropriately qualified person(s) must review the Seepage Management Plan, including the seepage monitoring program, and submit a review report to the department by 31 October of each calendar year. The review report must: (a) include a certification by the appropriately qualified person(s) that the Seepage Management Plan is compliant with the seepage management conditions of the environmental authority or detail amendments necessary to the Seepage Management Plan such that compliance can be achieved. (b) detail the review method and findings, an assessment of the effectiveness of the Seepage Management Plan, and detail and review the findings of the monitoring program designed to detect seepage that may not be captured. (c) include an assessment of the performance of the Seepage Management System as a whole in meeting its intent and continuing to remain as fit for purpose. (d) include documentation reasonably required for an independent technical review and substantiation of the performance. This, as a minimum, must include for each seepage control; i. the volume of seepage captured and when, and any changes in seepage volume over time; ii. the quality of the seepage with respect to the quality characteristics listed in Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations and frequency for Red Mud Dam and any changes over time; iii. the source of the seepage, influences on the quality and quantity of seepage generated, and if not well understood, recommended investigations to establish this information; iv. the disposal location for captured seepage; and v. an assessment of the performance of each individual seepage control in meeting the design intent and continuing to remain as fit for purpose. W51 The Seepage Management Plan must be amended within 30 days of each annual review as required to ensure compliance with the conditions of the EA. Groundwater Impacts on Flora and Fauna Habitat W52 By 24 June 2024 the environmental authority holder must develop a Vegetation Survey Plan targeting the area surrounding the Residue disposal area Location - Red Mud Dam. W53 The Vegetation Survey Plan must outline a program of works sufficient to identify any actual or potential impacts on vegetation communities, health, diversity and composition, as a result of activities authorised under this environmental authority. W54 The Vegetation Survey Plan must be certified by an appropriately qualified person(s) as being appropriate to achieve the outcome outlined in condition W53. W55 The Vegetation Survey Plan must include at the minimum the following (referencing relevant standards and methodologies as appropriate): (a) selected survey and assessment methodologies, evaluating the applicability of both proven and emerging technologies, (b) description of the selected survey locations, including analogue sites and relevant maps (c) data collection for vegetation cover density, species diversity and abundance, vegetation health and stress; and (d) details of the required frequency of monitoring to capture seasonal variation. W56 The Vegetation Survey Plan must be reviewed and updated by an appropriately qualified person(s) as often as necessary, to ensure compliance with condition W53. Any revised Vegetation Survey Plan must be recertified as per condition W54. W57 By 30 November each year, an annual vegetation and fauna habitat assessment report must be submitted to the administering authority. The report must detail the work conducted as outlined in and in response to the Vegetation Survey Plan, the findings of the work, any actual or potential

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 impacts and any recommendations. Documentation must be sufficient to allow for an independent technical review and substantiation of the findings. Prescribed environmental matters - matters of State environmental significance W58 Direct or indirect impacts to matters of State environmental significance (MSES) as a result of activities authorised under this environmental authority must not occur. W59 An amendment application in accordance with the Environmental Protection Act 1994, must be prepared and submitted to the administering authority by 31 December 2025 that nominates and supports an alternate discharge location for RMDs with consideration of the final report and associated findings resulting from the Notice to Conduct or Commission an Environmental Evaluation (STAT1431).

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Definitions Key terms and/or phrases used in this document are defined in this section. Holders should note that where a term is not defined, the definition in the Environmental Protection Act 1994, its regulations or environmental protection policies must be used. If a word remains undefined it has its ordinary meaning. "act" means the Environmental Protection Act 1994. "activity" means the environmentally relevant activities carried out by the holder. Innovation or its successor in the administration of the Environmental Protection Act 1994. "AEP" means the Annual Exceedance Probability, which is the probability that at least one event in excess of a particular magnitude will occur in any given year. "appropriately qualified person(s)" means a person who has professional qualifications, training, skills or experience relevant to the nominated subject matter and can give authoritative assessment, advice and analysis on performance relating to the subject matter using the relevant protocols, standards, methods or literature. "associated works" in relation to a dam, means: (a) operations of any kind and all things constructed, erected or installed for that dam; and (b) any land used for those operations. "AWQ guidelines" means the `Australian and New Zealand Guidelines for Fresh and Marine Water Quality', volumes 1, 2 and 3, published by ANZECC and ARMCANZ in October 2000 or more recent versions. "bed and banks" for a watercourse or wetland means land over which the water of the watercourse or wetland normally flows or that is normally covered by the water, whether permanently or intermittently; but does not include land adjoining or adjacent to the bed or banks that is from time to time covered by floodwater. "beneficial use" refer to Waste Reduction and Recycling Act 2011. "BOD5" means the 5 day biochemical oxygen demand determined using standard tests (e.g. those used by NATA laboratories). This test is not inhibited for nitrification, otherwise would be referred to as "carbonaceous" BOD. "COD" means chemical oxygen demand determined using standard tests (e.g. those used by NATA laboratories). "bore type" refer to classification of bores for specific purposes. "compliance bore" is specified to monitor for environmental impacts from potential sources of contamination. "operational bore" is specified to monitor the progress of mitigation measures. "interpretation bore" is specified to improve the understanding of the aquifer and its behaviour in relation to potential environmental impacts other than those from the activity. "bund" or "bunded" in relation to spill containment systems for fabricated or manufactured tanks or containers designed to a recognised standard means an embankment or wall of brick, stone, concrete or other impervious material which may form part or all of the perimeter of a compound and provides a barrier to retain liquid. Since the bund is the main part of a spill containment system, the whole system (or bunded area) is sometimes colloquially referred to within industry as the bund. The bund is designed to contain spillages and leaks from liquids used, stored or processed above ground and to facilitate clean-up operations. As well as being used to prevent pollution of the receiving environment, bunds are also used for fire protection, product recovery and process isolation.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 "certification", "certifying" or "certified" by a suitably qualified and experienced person in relation to a design plan or an annual report regarding dams, means that a statutory declaration has been made by that person and, when taken together with any attached or appended documents referenced in that declaration, all of the following aspects are addressed and are sufficient to allow an independent audit at any time: (a) exactly what is being certified and the precise nature of that certification; (b) the relevant legislative, regulatory and technical criteria on which the certification has been based; (c) the relevant data and facts on which the certification has been based, the source of that material, and the efforts made to obtain all relevant data and facts; and (d) the reasoning on which the certification has been based using the relevant data and facts, and the relevant criteria. "construction" or "constructed" in relation to a dam includes physical construction works for the building of a new dam, and modifying or lifting an existing dam, but does not include site preparatory works (in advance of construction) or investigations and testing necessary for purposes of preparing a design plan. "contaminant(s)" as defined in part 3, division (2) two of the Environmental Protection Act 1994. "contamination management plan" a QAL document which outlines the processes undertaken to prioritise and investigate potentially contaminated sites, which are conducted in compliance with the latest version of the National Environmental Protection (assessment of Site Contamination) Measure. The plan also incorporates a site overview and strategy for further works to be conducted for locations within the contaminated sites register. "contaminated sites register" means a list of sites prepared and maintained by the holder (defined by GPS Northing/Easting locations) which details known site history, contaminants of concern, land tenure associated with the site, site assessments undertaken, information on further management and remediation strategies. "continuous environmental monitoring systems" includes monitoring systems as required for weather station (condition A1), noise monitoring (condition N3), stack monitoring (condition A5), ambient air monitoring (condition A15), and surface water monitoring (condition W2). "dam" means a land-based structure or a void that is designed to contain, divert or control flowable substances, and includes any substances that are thereby contained, diverted or controlled by that land- based structure or void and associated works. A dam does not mean a fabricated or manufactured tank or container, designed and constructed to an Australian Standard that deals with strength and structural integrity of that tank or container. "design plan" is the documentation required to describe the physical dimensions of the dam, the materials and standards to be used for construction of the dam, and the criteria to be used for operating the dam. The documents must include all investigation and design reports, plans and specifications sufficient to hand to a contractor for construction, and planned decommissioning and rehabilitation outcomes; so as to address all hazard scenarios that would be identified by a properly conducted hazard assessment for the structure. Documentation must be such that a `suitable qualified and experienced person' could conduct an independent review without seeking further information from the designer. "design storage allowance" or "DSA" means an available volume, estimated in accordance with the Site Water Management Technical Guideline for Environmental Management of Exploration and Mining in Queensland (DME 1995), that must be provided in a dam as at the first of November each year in order to prevent a discharge from that dam to a probability (AEP) specified in that guideline. The DSA is estimated based on 100% runoff of wet season rainfall at the relevant AEP, taking account of process inputs during that wet season, with no allowance for evaporation.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 "deterioration of groundwater quality" means no increase in the concentrations of quality characteristics listed in Table 7 and no increase or decrease in pH, as determined by assessing relevant groundwater monitoring data in accordance with the document Using monitoring data to assess groundwater quality and potential environmental impacts prepared by Department of Science, Information Technology and Innovation dated March 2021 or subsequent revisions or an alternative methodology deemed acceptable by the administering authority. "determined" by a suitably qualified and experienced person in relation to a hazard assessment of a dam means that a statutory declaration has been made by that person and, when taken together with any attached or appended documents referenced in that declaration, all of the following aspects are addressed and are sufficient to allow an independent audit at any time: (a) exactly what has been assessed and the precise nature of that assessment; (b) the relevant legislative, regulatory and technical criteria on which the assessment has been based; (c) the relevant data and facts on which the assessment has been based, the source of that material, and the efforts made to obtain all relevant data and facts; and (d) the reasoning on which the assessment has been based using the relevant data and facts, and the relevant criteria. "dredging" means to clear out dredge material. "Dredge Management Plan (DMP)" is an environmental management plan for the dredging activity. It defines and describes the: - scope, timing and duration of the dredging operation - sediment plume-associated monitoring programs - assessment of data and trigger values, and - management actions that may be required in response to adverse monitoring results The DMP includes an aim to prevent and minimise environmental harm to sensitive receptors as a result of the dredging activity. "dredge material" is the sea, river or lake bed material (e.g. stone, gravel, sand, rock, clay, mud, silt and soil) as it remains in situ, prior to dredging disturbance. "dredge spoil" is dredge material that has been disturbed (i.e. extracted, transported, placed or disposed). "dust collector" means a device used for filtering particulate from the air which is otherwise free from fume or gaseous contaminants. "dwelling" means any of the following structures or vehicles that is principally used as a residence: (a) a house, unit, motel, nursing home or other building or part of a building; (b) a caravan, mobile home or other vehicle or structure on land; or (c) a water craft in a marina. "environment" includes: (a) ecosystems and their constituent parts, including people and communities; (b) all natural and physical resources; (c) the qualities and characteristics of locations, places and areas, however large or small, that contribute to their biological diversity and integrity, intrinsic or attributed scientific value or interest, amenity, harmony and sense of community; and (d) the social, economic, aesthetic and cultural conditions that affect, or are affected by, things mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (c).

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 "environmental authority" refers to schedule 4 of Environmental Protection Act 1994. "environmentally relevant activities" is any activity mentioned in Schedule 2 of the Environmental Protection Regulation 2008. "environmental nuisance" means unreasonable interference or likely interference with an environmental value caused by: (a) aerosols, fumes, light, noise, odour, particles or smoke; (b) an unhealthy, offensive or unsightly condition because of contamination; or (c) another way prescribed by regulation. "flowable substance" means matter or a mixture of materials which can flow under any conditions potentially affecting that substance. Constituents of a flowable substance can include water, other liquids fluids or solids, or a mixture that includes water and any other liquids fluids or solids either in solution or suspension. "foreseeable future" is the period used for assessing the total probability of an event occurring. Permanent structures and ecological sustainability should be expected to still exist at the end of a 150 year foreseeable future with an acceptable probability of failure before that time. "guideline values" are values for environmental health indicators designed to ensure that environmental values (EV) of water(s) are protected. Water quality Guideline values (GVs) for an EV are provided under the Environmental Protection (Water) Policy 2009 (in order of preference), according to: (a) site specific documents; (b) the Queensland Water quality guidelines 2009 (QWQ Guidelines); (c) the Australian and New Zealand Guidelines for Fresh and Marine Water Quality (ANZECC and ARMCANZ, 2000); or (d) other relevant water quality guidelines published by a recognised entity. Where there are multiple water quality GVs for a particular indicator to protect different EVs, the most stringent water quality GV applies. Where GVs are not available in the above listed documents, users should derive their own locally-derived GVs in accordance with administering authority-approved guidelines or procedures (QWQ Guidelines), or peer-reviewed scientific literature. "hazard" in relation to a dam as defined means the potential for environmental harm resulting from the collapse or failure of the dam to perform its primary purpose of containing, diverting or controlling flowable substances. "hazard category" means a category, either low significant or high, into which a dam is assessed as a result of the application of tables and other criteria in the Site Water Management Technical Guideline for Environmental Management of Exploration and Mining in Queensland (DME 1995). "holder" means any person who is the holder of, or is acting under, this environmental authority. "hydraulic performance" means the capacity of a regulated dam to contain or safely pass flowable substances based on a probability (AEP) of performance failure specified for the relevant hazard category in the Site Water Management Technical Guideline for Environmental Management of Exploration and Mining in Queensland (DME 1995). "impeded operational performance of pollution control equipment" means when the pollution control equipment is not operating to design specification in relation to pollutant removal.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 "indicators" and water quality guidelines for an environmental value are decided using the following documents: (a) site specific documents for the water; (b) the `QWQ guidelines'; (c) the `AWQ guidelines'; (d) other relevant documents published by a `recognised entity'. "infrastructure" means water storage dams, roads and tracks, buildings and other structures built for the purpose and duration of the conduct of the environmentally relevant activities, but does not include other facilities required for the long term management of the impact of those activities or the protection of potential resources. Such other facilities include dams other than water storage dams, waste dumps, voids, or stockpiles and assets, that have been decommissioned, rehabilitated, and lawfully recognised as being subject to subsequent transfer with ownership of the land. "lake" means: (a) a lagoon, swamp or other natural collection of water, whether permanent or intermittent; or (b) the bed and banks and any other element confining or containing the water. "land" means any parcel of land and area of ground together with any trees, crops or permanently attached buildings and including the airspace above land; and land that is, or is at any time, covered by waters; and waters. Land includes sealed and unsealed areas, road, dirt and soil. "LAmax adj, 15 mins" means the average maximum A-weighted sound pressure level; adjusted for noise character and measured over a time period of 15 minutes, using Fast response. "LAmax" means the instantaneous maximum A-weighted sound pressure level; using Fast response. "levee", "dyke" or "bund" means a long embankment that is designed only to provide for the containment and diversion of stormwater or flood flows from a contributing catchment, or containment and diversion of flowable materials resulting from releases from other works, during the progress of those stormwater or flood flows or those releases; and does not store any significant volume of water or flowable substances at any other times. "Limit A" means 80th percentile of a dataset (80% of the data points are less than or equal to that value), "Limit B" means 95th percentile of a dataset (95% of the data points are less than or equal to that value) "mg/L" means milligrams per litre. "mandatory reporting level" or "MRL" means a warning and reporting level determined in accordance with the Site Water Management Technical Guideline for Environmental Management of Exploration and Mining in Queensland (DME 1995). An MRL is the lowest level required in a regulated dam to allow either of the following to be retained: (a) the runoff from a 72 hour duration storm at the AEP specified in the Table 13; or (b) a wave allowance at that AEP as estimated using a recognised engineering method. "major wet weather events" is equal to or greater than a one (1) in ten (10) year twenty-four (24) hour rain event for Gladstone as calculated by the Hydrometeorological Advisory Service, Australian Bureau of Meteorology. "maximum" means that the measured value of the quality characteristic or contaminant must not be greater than the release limit stated. "minimum" means that the measured value of the quality characteristic or contaminant must not be less than the release limit stated.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 "mixing zone" means an area of the receiving environment associated with a point source release within which contaminant concentrations occur outside of the normal ambient range and where water quality objectives do not apply. "NATA" means the National Association of Testing Authorities, Australia. "natural gas" includes CSG. "NEPM groundwater investigation level" means the concentration of a contaminant above which further appropriate investigation and evaluation is required as set out in the `Guideline on the Investigation Levels for Soil and Groundwater' prepared by the National Environment Protection (assessment of site contamination) Measure 2013 or more recent versions. "new dredging activity" means a dredging activity that is currently not underway, the next stage of a dredging campaign that is currently underway, or a discretely separate area in a larger dredge campaign that is currently underway. "nuisance sensitive place" means any of the following: (a) a dwelling, residential allotment, mobile home or caravan park, residential marina or other residential premises; (b) library and educational institution (including a school, college and university; (c) childcare centre or kindergarten; (d) school or playground; (e) hospital, surgery or other medical institution; (f) an area identified under the Nature Conservation Act 1992 as a protected area or an area identified as a critical habitat or an area of major interest in a conservation plan; (g) marine park under the Marine Parks Act 2004; (h) park or garden that is open to the public (whether or not on payment of an amount) for use other than for sport or organised entertainment; or (i) a place used as a workplace, an office or for business or commercial purposes and includes a place within the curtilage of such a place reasonably used by persons at that place. "occasion" means any four sample results for metals and any four (4) 24-hour periods where continuous samples indicate an exceedance. "operational plan" means a document that amongst other things sets out procedures and criteria to be used for operating a dam during a particular time period. The operational plan as defined herein may form part of a plan of operations or plan otherwise required in legislation. "pre-existing" means known groundwater contamination prior to August 2013 under the refinery and under island bund #4. "process contaminants" means liquids and slurries used or produced in the processing of bauxite to alumina and does not include hydrocarbons. "QWQ guidelines" means the document called `Queensland Water quality guidelines 2009' or more recent versions. "range" means that the measured value of the quality characteristic or contaminant must be less than the higher release limit stated and greater than the lower release limit stated.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 "recognised entity" means: (a) a local government; (b) a public sector unit; (c) an agency of the Commonwealth or another State, however called, with similar functions to the functions of the chief executive; (d) a ministerial council established by the Council of Australian Governments; (e) the Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation; (f) a research centre completely or partly funded by the Commonwealth; (g) an Australian university; (h) a Queensland regional NRM body; (i) Healthy Waterways Limited ACN 137 943 554; and (j) any other international best proactive guideline including NEPM groundwater investigation level or Dutch Intervention Guidelines target value. "regulated dam" means any dam in the significant or high hazard category as assessed in the most recent version of the Manual for Assessing Hazard Categories and Hydraulic Performance of Dams. "Rehabilitation" means the process of reshaping and revegetating land to restore it to a stable landform and in accordance with the acceptance criteria set out in this environmental authority and, where relevant, includes remediation of contaminated land. "residue disposal areas" means the areas defined in condition (L7) and includes Ash Dam, Red Mud Dam, Mineral Waste Disposal Facility and Asbestos Landfill. "representative of actual operating conditions" means stack testing must be carried out when production rates are within 10% or greater than the average production rate of three (3) months prior (excluding shutdowns) to when the testing is to be undertaken. "RL" means reduced level, relative to mean sea level as distinct from depths to water. "sediment plume-associated monitoring" means environmental monitoring associated with risk management of sediment plume impacts. "sensitive receptor" means any of the following. (a) A dwelling, residential allotment, mobile home or caravan park, residential marina or other residential premises. (b) Library and educational institution (including a school, college and university. (c) Childcare centre or kindergarten. (d) School or playground. (e) Hospital, surgery or other medical institution. (f) An area identified under the Nature Conservation Act 1992 as a protected area or an area identified as a critical habitat or an area of major interest in a conservation plan. (g) Marine park under the Marine Parks Act 2004. (h) Park or garden that is open to the public (whether or not on payment of an amount) for use other than for sport or organised entertainment. (i) A place used as a workplace, an office or for business or commercial purposes and includes a place within the curtilage of such a place reasonably used by persons at that place. "site" means the lot and plan locations to which the Environmental Authority relates.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 "specialist in the field" means a person or body possessing the relevant experience and qualifications to perform the required measurements and subsequent interpretation, evaluation and explanation of the monitoring results, trends and programs. "spillway" means a weir, channel, conduit, tunnel, gate or other structure designed to permit discharges form the dam, normally under flood conditions or in anticipation of flood conditions. "stable" in relation to land, means land form dimensions are and will remain within tolerable limits now and in the foreseeable future. Issues to be properly considered in regard to whether or not the landform is stable include geotechnical stability, settlement and consolidation allowances, bearing capacity (trafficability), erosion resistance and geochemical stability with respect to seepage, leachate and related contaminant generation. "standard metal(loid)s" includes Al, V, Mo, Ga, As, Hg, Cd, Pb, Zn, Cu, Ni, Fe, Mn, Se, Co. "suitably qualified and experienced person" in relation to dams means a person who is a Registered Professional Engineer of Queensland (RPEQ) under the provisions of the Professional Engineers Act 2002, or at the relevant time holds a 'deemed registration' within the meaning of the Mutual Recognition (Queensland) Act 1992; and has knowledge, suitable experience and demonstrated expertise in relevant fields, as set out below: (a) knowledge of engineering principles related to the structures, geomechanics, hydrology, hydraulics, chemistry and environmental impact of dams; and (b) a total of five years of demonstrated expertise in the geomechanics of dams with particular emphasis on stability, geology and geochemistry, and (c) a total of five years of demonstrated expertise in three of the following categories: i. investigation and design of dams; ii. construction, operation and maintenance of dams; iii. hydrology with particular reference to flooding, estimation of extreme storms, water management or meteorology; iv. hydraulics with particular reference to sediment transport and deposition, erosion control, beach processes; v. hydrogeology with particular reference to seepage, groundwater; vi. solute transport processes and monitoring thereof; or vii. dam safety. "suitably qualified third party auditor" means a person with a relevant qualification and at least five (5) years' experience in the field of environmental auditing that is accepted by the administering authority. "tolerable limits" means a range of parameters regarded as being sufficient to meet the objective of protecting relevant environmental values. For example, a range of settlement for a tailings capping, rather than a single value, could still meet the objective of draining the cap quickly, preventing damage and limiting infiltration and percolation. "topsoil" means the surface (top) layer of a soil profile, which is more fertile, darker in colour, better structured and supports greater biological activity than underlying layers. The surface layer may vary in depth depending on soil forming factors, including parent material, location and slope, but generally is not greater than about 300mm in depth from the natural surface. "trigger values (TV)" are values that, when exceeded, result in a management response, action or investigation. TVs can be guideline values attributed to a specific contaminant or ecological measure. TVs can be applied within a mixing zone. "void" means any constructed, open excavation in the ground. "visible dust event" means an event that results in visible dust moving beyond the lot and plan where the relevant environmentally relevant activity is carried out.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 "waters" includes all or any part of a river, stream, lake, lagoon, pond, swamp, wetland, unconfined surface water, unconfined water in natural or artificial watercourses, bed and banks of a watercourse, dams, non-tidal or tidal waters (including the sea), stormwater channel, stormwater drain, roadside gutter, stormwater run-off, and groundwater. "watercourse" means a river, creek or stream in which water flows permanently or intermittently (a) in a natural channel, whether artificially improved or not; or (b) in an artificial channel that has changed the course of the watercourse. Watercourse includes the bed and banks and any other element of a river, creek or stream confining or containing water. "water quality guidelines" are quantitative measures or statements for indicators, including contaminant concentration or sustainable load measures of water that protect a stated environmental value. water quality objectives (WQO)" are published guideline values contained in Schedule 1 of the Environmental Protection (Water) Policy 2009 (EPP Water), WQOs only apply outside of authorised mixing zones. Where WQOs are not scheduled within the EPP Water, the QWQ Guidelines apply as default WQOs. Where QWQ Guideline values are not available, locally-derived guideline values should be developed in accordance with the procedures prescribed in the QWQ Guidelines or other referenced guidelines. "weekly" in relation to a minimum sample frequency refers to the collection of one (1) representative water sample every seven (7) days, +/- one (1) day. "wetland" means an area shown as a wetland on a `Map of referable wetlands', a document approved by the chief executive (environment). A map of referable wetlands can be viewed at www.ehp.qld.gov.au. "zone of influence" means the area where at least some level of sediment plume impacts are expected to occur.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Appendices Schedule 1--Approved plans Figure 1 Process Containment System Figure 2 Residue disposal area Location - Ash Dam Figure 3 Residue Disposal Area Location - Mineral Waste Disposal Facility Figure 4 Residue disposal area Location - Asbestos Landfill Figure 5 Residue disposal area Location - Red Mud Dam Figure 6 Ambient dust monitoring locations Figure 7 Attended noise monitoring locations Figure 8 Mixing zone South Trees Inlet - Red Mud Dam#2 Discharge Figure 9 Groundwater monitoring locations - Refinery Figure 10 Groundwater monitoring locations - South Trees Island Figure 11 Groundwater monitoring locations - Red Mud Dam Schedule 2--Release limits and monitoring Table 1 Contaminant release limits to air Table 2 Required release point determinations Table 3 Not included in Schedule 2 (see Condition (A6)) Table 4 Dust and/or particulate matter monitoring program Table 5 Contaminants, sources, locations of releases to waters, release limits and monitoring Table 6 Trigger values - Red Mud Dam mixing zone Table 7 Groundwater monitoring locations, quality characteristics and frequency Table 8 Not included in Schedule 2 (see Condition (N1)) Table 9 Not included in Schedule 2 (see Condition (N3)) Table 10 Groundwater quality limits (compliance bores only) Table 11 Location of Residue disposal areas Table 12 Basic Details of Residue Areas Table 13 Hydraulic Performance of Regulated dams

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Schedule 1--Approved plans Figure 1 Process Containment System

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Figure 2 Residue disposal area Location - Ash Dam

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Figure 3 Residue Disposal Area Location - Mineral Waste Disposal Facility

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental Authority EPPR00494413 Figure 4 Residue disposal area Location - Asbestos Landfill

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Figure 5 Residue disposal area Location - Red Mud Dam

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Figure 6 Ambient dust monitoring locations

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Figure 7 Attended noise monitoring locations

OFFICIAL Permit Figure 8 Mixing zone South Trees Inlet - Red Mud Dam#2 Discharge Environmental authority EPPR00494413

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Figure 9 Groundwater monitoring locations - Refinery

OFFICIAL Permit Figure 10 Groundwater monitoring locations - South Trees Island Environmental authority EPPR00494413

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Figure 11 Groundwater monitoring locations - Red Mud Dam

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Schedule 2--Release limits and monitoring Table 1 Contaminant release limits to air Release point Contaminant release Maximum concentration Averaging Period Minimum release height release limit (metres - Australian Height 24 hour rolling average CFB1 Particulates 50mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average Datum) (Boiler 1) Oxides of Nitrogen 1000mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average 1200mg/Nm3 (dry) 103 CFB2 Sulphur Dioxide 0.2mg/Nm3 (dry) - (Boiler 2) Mercury 40mg/Nm3 (dry) - Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane 50mg/Nm3 (dry) equivalent 1000mg/Nm3 (dry) 24 hour rolling average Particulates 1200mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average 0.2mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average Oxides of Nitrogen Sulphur Dioxide 40mg/Nm3 (dry) 103 50mg/Nm3 (dry) - Mercury Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane - equivalent 24 hour rolling average Particulates Oxides of Nitrogen 1000mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average 1200mg/Nm3 (dry) CFB3 Sulphur Dioxide 0.2mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average 103 (Boiler 3) Mercury 40mg/Nm3 (dry) Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane - equivalent -

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Release point Contaminant release Maximum concentration Averaging Period Minimum release height release limit (metres - Australian Height Datum) Particulates 50mg/Nm3 (dry) 24 hour rolling average 1000mg/Nm3 (dry) Oxides of Nitrogen 1200mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average 0.2mg/Nm3 (dry) CFB4-5 Sulphur Dioxide 1 hour rolling average 103 (Boiler 4/5) Mercury 40mg/Nm3 (dry) 50mg/Nm3 (dry) 1000mg/Nm3 (dry) - 1200mg/Nm3 (dry) Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane 0.2mg/Nm3 (dry) - equivalent 40mg/Nm3 (dry) 24 hour rolling average Particulates 350mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average Oxides of Nitrogen CFB6-7 Sulphur Dioxide 1 hour rolling average 103 (Boiler 6/7) Mercury Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane - equivalent - PB1 Oxides of Nitrogen 1 hour rolling average 52 (Package Boiler 1) PB2 Oxides of Nitrogen 350mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average 52 (Package Boiler 2) PB3 Oxides of Nitrogen 350mg/Nm3 (dry) 1 hour rolling average 52 (Package Boiler 3) Particulates 50mg/Nm3 (dry) 24 hour rolling average 61 GSC1 (Calciner 1)

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Release point Contaminant release Maximum concentration Averaging Period Minimum release height release limit - (metres - Australian Height Datum) Oxides of Nitrogen 200mg/Nm3 (dry) 40mg/Nm3 (dry) Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane 50mg/Nm3 (dry) - equivalent 200mg/Nm3 (dry) 40mg/Nm3 (dry) Particulates 24 hour rolling average 50mg/Nm3 (dry) GSC2 Oxides of Nitrogen 200mg/Nm3 (dry) - 61 (Calciner 2) Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane 40mg/Nm3 (dry) 50mg/Nm3 (dry) equivalent 200mg/Nm3 (dry) - 40mg/Nm3 (dry) Particulates 24 hour rolling average - GSC3 Oxides of Nitrogen - - 61 (Calciner 3) Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane equivalent - Particulates 24 hour rolling average FBC1 Oxides of Nitrogen - 56 (Lurgi Calciner) Total volatile organic compounds (TVOC) as n-propane - TO1 equivalent TO2 Thermal Oxidiser - 28 Thermal Oxidiser - 29

OFFICIAL Table 2 Required release point determinations Permit Release point Contaminant Released Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Particulates CFB1 Frequency (Boiler 1) Oxides of Nitrogen Continuous Sulphur Dioxide Continuous Mercury Continuous One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually CFB2 Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually (Boiler 2) Particulates Continuous Continuous CFB3 Oxides of Nitrogen Continuous (Boiler 3) Sulphur Dioxide One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually Mercury One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually CFB4-5 Continuous (Boiler 4/5) Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent Continuous Particulates Continuous CFB6-7 One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually (Boiler 6/7) Oxides of Nitrogen One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually Sulphur Dioxide Continuous Mercury Continuous Continuous Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually Particulates One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually Continuous Oxides of Nitrogen Continuous Sulphur Dioxide Mercury Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent Particulates Oxides of Nitrogen

OFFICIAL PB1 (Package Sulphur Dioxide Permit Boiler 1) Mercury Environmental authority EPPR00494413 PB2 (Package Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent Boiler 2) Continuous Oxides of Nitrogen One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually PB3 (Package One Coal Fired Boiler release point annually Boiler 3) Oxides of Nitrogen Continuous GSC1 Oxides of Nitrogen (Calciner 1) Continuous Particulates GSC2 Oxides of Nitrogen Continuous (Calciner 2) Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent Continuous GSC3 Particulates One Calciner release point annually (Calciner 3) Oxides of Nitrogen One Calciner release point annually Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent FBC1 Continuous (Lurgi Calciner) Particulates One Calciner release point annually Oxides of Nitrogen One Calciner release point annually TO1 Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent Continuous TO2 Particulates One Calciner release point annually Oxides of Nitrogen One Calciner release point annually Total volatile organic compounds as n-propane equivalent Continuous Cadmium Annually Mercury Annually Cadmium Annually Mercury Annually Annually Annually

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Table 4 Dust and/or particulate matter monitoring program Indicator Limit Averaging Periods Locations Minimum Monitoring 90 -g/m3 24 hour Frequency TSP 50 -g/m3 24 hour R1, R2, R3, Continuously 120mg/m2/day 30 days (See Figure 6) Particulate Matter less than Continuously 10-m in aerodynamic R3 diameter (PM10) (See Figure 6) Monthly Dust deposition (total insoluble solids) R1, R2 (See Figure 6) Associated requirements include: The following relevant Australian Standards are to be used in Table 4 unless otherwise agreed to in writing by the administering authority. (a) AS/NZS 3580.1.1:2007 Methods for sampling and analysis of ambient air - Part 1.1: Guide to siting air monitoring equipment. (b) AS/NZS 3580.9.8:2001 Method 9.8: Determination of suspended particulate matter - PM10 continuous direct mass method using a tapered element oscillating microbalance analyser. (c) AS/NZS 3580.9.3:2003 Methods for sampling and analysis of ambient air - Determination of suspended particulate matter - Total suspended particulate matter (TSP) - High volume sampler gravimetric method. (d) AS/NZS 3580.10.1:2003 Methods for sampling and analysis of ambient air - Determination of particulate matter - Deposited matter - Gravimetric method. (e) AS/NZS 3580.9.11:2008 Methods for determination of suspended particulate matter, PM10 beta attenuation monitors

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Table 5 Contaminants, sources, locations of releases to waters, release limits and monitoring Release Point Contaminants, Source and Receiving Environment Eastings and Name Parameters (units) Release Limit Minimum Northings Median sample frequency Locations Minimum Maximum Continuous 6.5-9.0 (based pH 6.5 on 4 day rolling 9.5 median)1 Discharge of seawater and Total Suspended Solids 50 (based on 6 stormwater runoff from ash (TSS) (mg/L) dam, to Ash Dam decant pond - week rolling 100 Weekly over spillway into South Trees Dissolved oxygen (mg/L) 326791.838 #4 Ash dam median)2 7357598.907 Inlet 2.0 - - Weekly Standard metal(loid)s3 Monthly, Daily if (Dissolved metals4) (mg/L) - - - pH is outside limits Volume (m3/day) - - - Continuous Discharge of seawater, 6.5-9.0 (based process contaminants, pH 6.5 on 4 day rolling 9.5 Continuous Weekly stormwater runoff of alumina A Total Suspended Solids median)1 Weekly (TSS) (mg/L) 326491.364 Neutralising pond frame, bauxite stockpile, fuel 50 (based on 6 7359713.455 storage area, mineral waste Dissolved oxygen (mg/L) disposal facility, waste transfer - week rolling 100 station and buffer zone to median)2 South Trees Inlet Tidal Pond via pond spillway. 2.0 - -

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Release Point Contaminants, Source and Receiving Environment Eastings and Name Parameters (units) Release Limit Minimum Northings Median sample Aluminium (Dissolved4) - frequency Locations (mg/L) Minimum Maximum - - 3.0 Weekly, Daily if - pH is outside - - limits - Standard metal(loid)s3 6.5 Monthly, Daily if (Dissolved metals4) (mg/L) - pH is outside limits Volume (m3/day) - Continuous pH 9.5 Continuous Total Suspended Solids (TSS) (mg/L) - - 50 Weekly Discharge of seawater, Dissolved oxygen (mg/L) stormwater from coal stockpile, Aluminium (Dissolved4) 2.0 - - Weekly (mg/L) 326014.472 West Coal Stilling calciners, and process Weekly, Daily if contaminants overflow from Standard metal(loid)s3 pH is outside 7360165.382 pond West Contaminants Pond to (Dissolved - - 3.0 limits intertidal mangroves and Port metals4) (mg/L) Monthly, Daily if Volume (m3/day) pH is outside Curtis via pond spillway limits pH Continuous - - - Continuous - - - End of RMD#2 (includes Residue waste water from 6.5-9.0 (based Channel: end of channel, RMD#2 decant pond to South 328335.9224 biopond, and C- Trees Inlet via 2 diffusers and 6.5 on 4 day rolling 9.5 7350075.171 overland flow from bio-pond. median)1

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Release Point Contaminants, Source and Receiving Environment Eastings and Name Parameters (units) Release Limit Minimum Northings sample Total Suspended Solids frequency Locations (TSS) (mg/L) Minimum Median Maximum Weekly Biopond: Gate side Dissolved oxygen (mg/L) 50 (based on 6 328412.969 discharge) BOD5(mg/L) Continuous 7350074.299 - week rolling 100 Weekly median)2 C-Gate Side 2.0 - - Discharge: 328569.774 For interpretation 7350126.214 COD(mg/L) For interpretation Weekly Standard metal(loid)s3 Monthly, Daily if (Dissolved metals4) (mg/L) - - - pH is outside limits Magnesium Aluminium concentration at - - Weekly, Daily if (Dissolved4) sea water break 3.06 pH is outside (mg/L) tank5 is less limits than (<) 900mg/L

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Release Point Contaminants, Source and Receiving Environment Eastings and Name Parameters (units) Release Limit Minimum Northings sample frequency Locations Minimum Median Maximum Magnesium Aluminium concentration at - - 1.5 (Dissolved4) sea water break tank5 is equal to (mg/L) or greater than () 900mg/L Volume (m3/day) - - 170,000 Continuously Intermittent releases pH 6.5 - 9.5 Daily upon discharge 326654.551 Sweetening Stormwater runoff from bauxite Turbidity (NTU) - - 150 Daily upon 7360077.85 bauxite pond stockpile area to overflow drain discharge into South Trees Inlet Tidal Pond Standard metal(loid)s3 - - - Daily if pH is (Dissolved metals4) (mg/L) outside limits 327935.295 Island Bund #4 Stormwater from caustic bund pH 6.5 - 9.0 Daily upon 7360503.626 to land via bund valve discharge 328194.896 Island Bund #2 Stormwater from caustic bund pH 6.5 - 9.0 Daily upon 7360505.498 to land via bund valve discharge

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Release Point Contaminants, Source and Receiving Environment Eastings and Name Parameters (units) Release Limit Minimum Northings pH sample frequency Locations Minimum Median Maximum Daily upon 6.5 - 9.0 discharge Discharge of seawater, Total Suspended Solids - - 50 Daily upon stormwater and surface runoff (TSS) (mg/L) discharge 325204.4107 Wetland Valve from plant west side including 7359402.32 Release surface areas, workshops, etc. and west gate pond (calciners) to wetlands and mudflat area via Standard metal(loid)s3 Daily if pH is (Dissolved metals4) (mg/L) - - - outside limits valve. Aluminium (Dissolved4) - - 0.6 Daily if pH is (mg/L) outside limits 1. Where Median pH range is influenced by major wet weather events, a minimum 98% compliance must be achieved in a calendar year. 2. Where Median TSS is influenced by major wet weather events a minimum 90% compliance must achieved in a calendar year. 3. Standard metal(loid)s suite is Al, V, Mo, Ga, As, Cd, Pb, Zn, Cu, Ni, Fe, Mn, Se, Co. 4. Dissolved Metals as measured by field filtering at <0.45-m. 5. Sea Water Break Tank location - Eastings: 327961.48, Northings: 7351907.162. 6. The maximum limit applied for twenty-one (21) days after the Magnesium concentration returns to 900mg/L.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Table 6 Trigger values - Red Mud Dam mixing zone Trigger Value Monitoring Locations Parameter Instantaneous Annual Monitoring Frequency Maximum Median Mixing zone - Section A Between upstream Extent (E326979 N7351359) and downstream Extent (E330741 N7349665) Refer to Figure 8 in Schedule 1 Monitoring Points: pH - 7.0 - 8.41 Continuously (Deep Hole); Deep Hole Dissolved* Aluminium (-g/L) 6002 602 Monthly (King Billy Rocks+, RMD Saltwater Pumps+) (E328291 N7350087) Dissolved* Gallium (-g/L)3 86 - Monthly King Billy Rocks+ (E329832 N7350517) Monthly RMD Saltwater+ Dissolved* Molybdenum (-g/L)3 540 - Monthly Monthly Pumps Dissolved* Vanadium (-g/L)4 (E327167 N7351405) 100 - Mixing zone - Section B Between upstream Extent (E326257 N7352345) and downstream Extent (E326979 N7351359) AND Between upstream Extent (E330741 N7349665) and downstream Extent (E330926 N7348247). Refer to Figure 8 in Schedule 1. Monitoring Points: pH - 7.0 - 8.41 Continuously (Boyne Bridge); Boyne Bridge Dissolved* Aluminium (-g/L) 1002 241 Monthly (Toolooa Boat Ramp) (E330950 N7349007) 86 - Dissolved* Gallium (-g/L)3 Monthly Toolooa Boat Ramp (E326126 N7351783) Monthly Dissolved* Molybdenum (-g/L)3 540 - Monthly Dissolved* Vanadium (-g/L)4 100 - Monthly + Sampled monthly, if safe to do so

OFFICIAL Permit * Dissolved metals as measured by field filtering at <0.45-m Environmental authority EPPR00494413 1 WQO for Upper South Trees (EPP Water 2009) 2 locally derived (`Development of Water Quality Targets for QAL RMD2 Mixing zone', Parry, 2015) 3 derived from toxicity data (`Development of Water Quality Targets for QAL RMD2 Mixing zone', Parry, 2015) 4 ANZECC & ARMCANZ 2000

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Table 7 - Groundwater monitoring locations, quality characteristics and frequency Monitoring Location Bore Type Hydro- Top of Casing Surface Screened Aquifer Quality Characteristic5,6 Monitoring Point1 Coordinates (GDA 94) geological RL (mAHD)2 interval bgl (m) Frequency RL Easting Northing unit (mAHD)2 South Trees Island ST4b 328183.980 7360426.236 Compliance Gravel, 4.554 3.897 3.3-5.5 Shallow Total Recoverable Hydrocarbons ST5 Sand Shallow (TRH)3 Shallow 328082.2318 7360335.001 Compliance Silty Sand 4.218 3.482 2.05-5.05 Shallow Major Ions Shallow (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4) ST7 327850.1036 7360634.349 Operational Silty Sand 4.585 4.119 2.0-5.0 Fluoride ST8b 327882.179 7360734.694 Compliance Sand, Sandy 5.005 4.310 3.5-6.5 ST9 327935.213 7360572.43 Gravel Field Filtered Metal(loid)s ST28 (Aluminium, Arsenic, Gallium, Clayey 4.679 4.228 2.5-5.5 Quarterly Operational Sand, Silty Molybdenum, Vanadium) Clayey Sand 328218.358 7360536.554 Compliance Sand 3.336 2.340 4.5-7.5 Shallow Alkalinity 3.5-6.5 Shallow (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate ST95a 327805.289 7360618.115 Compliance Gravel, 4.181 4.167 6.4-8.0 Shallow ST123 328186.630 7360685.580 Compliance Sand 2.5-5.5 and Hydroxide) 2.533 1.725 Gravelly 2.0-5.0 Electrical Conductivity Sand pH ST125 328201.016 7360597.389 Compliance Silty Sand 2.606 1.670 Shallow Standing water level Plant AP1a 325868.909 7360019.953 Operational TBA 5.275 4.394 Shallow Total Recoverable Hydrocarbons Quarterly (TRH)3

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 AP2b 325882.441 7360021.459 Compliance Claystone 5.270 4.369 9.0-12.0 Deep Major Ions AP3 6.555 5.900 1.7-3.2 (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4) AP4 6.545 5.865 12.6-15.6 AP5a 325612.0582 7359733.247 Compliance Clayey 5.684 4.873 0.7-3.4 Shallow Fluoride AP13 Gravel 4.517 4.392 1.5-4.5 Deep 19.0-31.0 Field Filtered Metal(loid)s 325609.2282 7359734.327 Compliance Shale 7.7-13.7 Shallow (Aluminium, Arsenic, Gallium, 2.5-5.5 Shallow 325486.219 7359813.725 Compliance Sand, 2.5-5.5 Molybdenum, Vanadium) Clayey 6.0-12.0 Deep Sand, Fill Deep Alkalinity 0.9-2.1 (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate 326137.765 7360164.214 Operational Silty Clay 1.2-2.7 1.6-3.1 and Hydroxide) AP15 325706.527 7359025.092 Compliance Shale 21.669 21.139 Electrical Conductivity AP16a 326094.4645 7359134.211 Operational Shale 4.835 4.297 AP17a pH AP43 AP44 Standing water level 326095.0745 7359136.081 Operational Silty Clayey 4.879 4.281 Shallow 325009.3119 7359193.441 Compliance Gravel, 325004.5119 7359183.641 Shale 4.594 3.861 Shallow Deep Clay, Silty Clay Compliance Claystone, 4.588 3.568 Mudstone Ash/Sand Ponds AP7a 324841.908 7360162.470 Operational Sandy Clay, 4.423 3.603 Shallow Major Ions AP8a 324891.733 7360563.913 Fill Shallow (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4) AP9a 325140.388 7360623.403 Shallow Compliance Clayey 4.447 3.374 Fluoride Quarterly Sand, Fill Field Filtered Metal(loid)s Gravelly 4.795 3.820 (Aluminium, Arsenic, Gallium, Compliance Sandy Clay, Molybdenum, Vanadium) Fill

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 AP10 325359.4706 7360649.521 Compliance Sandstone 4.107 3.540 1.75-3.25 Shallow Alkalinity 5.012 4.421 1.9-4.9 Shallow (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate AP11a Clayey 5.577 4.588 325715.647 7360802.098 Operational Gravel, Silty 4.7-6.2 and Hydroxide) 9.0-15.0 sand, Fill 4.1-7.1 Electrical Conductivity AP12a 325948.592 7360562.095 Operational Clayey Deep pH Gravel Standing water level AP14 325358.4406 7360645.881 Compliance Shale 4.115 3.575 Deep AP18a 326772.080 7357525.692 Compliance Silty Clay 5.217 4.31 Deep AP60 AP64 326961.938 7358713.319 Compliance Clayey Silt, 6.011 5.096 0.9-3.9 Shallow 326871.119 7360098.96 Gravelly Clay, Clay, Fill Compliance Gravel, Clay, 5.661 4.985 1.5-4.5 Shallow Fill Landfills LF6 326335.179 7359226.856 Operational Clay 6.557 5.158 2.6-5.6 Shallow Major Ions 2.5-5.5 Shallow (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4) Quarterly Fluoride LF7 326165.371 7358400.285 Compliance Sand 3.990 3.347

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Field Filtered Metal(loid)s (Aluminium, Arsenic, Gallium, Molybdenum, Vanadium) LF17 326107.046 7358410.566 Operational TBA 2.979 2.565 0.5-1.0 Shallow Alkalinity (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate 6.0-12.0 1.0-4.0 and Hydroxide) 9.85-15.85 16.0-19.0 Electrical Conductivity 15.5-18.5 9.0-12.0 pH 7.0-10.0 Standing water level Red Mud Dam 2 RM1 330565.2676 7350562.596 Compliance Sandstone 7.958 7.502 Shallow Major Ions (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4) Fluoride RM3a 328465.5915 7350076.901 Compliance Silty Clay 4.532 4.352 Shallow Field Filtered Metal(loid)s 9.33 8.961 Shallow (Aluminium, Arsenic, Cobalt, RM4 328168.457 7350377.502 Compliance Shale 28.050 27.280 Shallow Quarterly (at 17.280 16.390 Shallow Gallium, Manganese, a minimum) RM24a 331020.09 7351380.43 Compliance Sandstone 8.120 6.750 Shallow Molybdenum, Vanadium) 8.670 7.870 Alkalinity (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate and Hydroxide) RM54 328290.686 7353795.776 Compliance Mudstone Electrical Conductivity RM55 RM56 328230.585 7353112.48 Compliance Clay, pH, Mudstone 327788.688 7352784.983 Compliance Mudstone Shallow Total dissolved solids4,

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 RM57 327294.091 7352364.286 Compliance Mudstone 3.890 3.100 8.0-11.0 Shallow Standing water level RM60 4.840 3.960 2.0-7.0 Shallow RM65 329322.276 7350458.598 Compliance Silty Clay, 4.290 3.430 3.0-6.0 Shallow Clay, Shale 30.284 22.5-25.5 Shallow 22.005 17.9-20.9 327339.2901 7351411.093 Compliance Clay 18.891 18.0-21.0 Deep 38.879 21.0-24.0 Deep RM105 328381.081 7352632.312 Operational Claystone 31.040 Shallow RM109 330896.367 7351704.543 Operational Sandstone 22.726 RM110 330532.939 7352200.297 Operational Claystone 19.373 RM111 327856.48 7352208.696 Operational Claystone 39.416 RM122S 11.653 RM122D 330453.584 7352319.829 Operational Claystone, 11.596 10.898 6.5-12.0 Shallow Gravelly Clay 330452.391 7352319.206 Compliance Claystone 10.913 20.8-26.8 Deep 14.002 18.0-24.0 Deep RM123D 330719.616 7352438.771 Compliance Claystone 14.667 RM123S 14.716 RM125 330719.577 7352439.894 Claystone, 19.834 14.041 11.0-14.0 Shallow Sandy Compliance Gravelly Clay, Clayey Sand 327473.376 7352507.661 Compliance Claystone 18.990 9.0-18.0 Shallow 5.337 2.0-6.0 Shallow RM132 328115.193 7354484.46 Compliance Claystone 6.257

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 SMB09 330073.455 7354684.525 Compliance Sand, 1.9 1.11 0.9-2.4 Shallow Gravel Shallow SMB29 331881.999 7352270.09 Compliance Siltstone 9.1 8.59 10.2-13.2 Deep Shallow SMB53 330244 7352379.13 Compliance Sandstone, 10.67 9.86 21.3-24.3 SMB54 330248 7352376.1 Slate 10.52 9.72 9.3-12.3 Deep SMB55 331223.08 7351823.02 22.72 21.94 30.0-33.0 Shallow SMB56 331223.97 7351819.95 Compliance Sandstone, 22.51 21.71 13.0-16.0 SMB63 330578.072 7354019.565 Slate, Schist 6.193 5.542 28.5-32.0 Deep WDMB31 330280.351 7352719.975 9.69 9.320 9.0-12.0 Deep Compliance Quartzite, Slate Compliance Slate, Quartzite Compliance Claystone, Quartz Compliance Sandy Clay, Shale, Clay Historical Red Mud Dam RM8 Silty Sand, 7.432 7.330 1.4 - 4.4 Shallow Major Ions RM9 328296.347 7354662.868 Operational Sandstone/ (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4) Silty Clay 7.490 7.272 12.0 - 15.0 Deep Fluoride Deep 328293.86 7354665.13 Operational Mudstone Shallow Shallow RM10a 328175.329 7354664.823 Operational Mudstone 5.203 4.693 8.5 - 11.5 Field Filtered Metal(loid)s Quarterly (at 4.572 4.311 1.1 - 4.1 (Aluminium, Arsenic, Cobalt, a minimum) 4.610 4.310 0.95 - 3.95 RM11 328172.8869 7354660.87 Operational Silty Clay, Gallium, Molybdenum, RM12 328177.0869 7354703.77 Operational Mudstone Manganese, Vanadium) Silty Clay, Alkalinity Mudstone (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate and Hydroxide)

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 RM13a 328178.666 7354701.701 Operational Mudstone 4.831 4.226 8.5 - 11.5 Deep Electrical Conductivity 5.234 pH RM14A 328424.191 7355896.536 Operational Unknown 6.184 3.802 TBA Shallow 5.751 Standing water level RM15 328867.4833 7356185.659 Operational Sand 4.340 5.736 1.6 - 4.6 Shallow 6.223 RM16 328317.9868 7355771.162 Operational Sand, Silty 6.222 3.0 - 6.0 Shallow Sand 6.473 RM17 329389.608 7355226.303 Operational Sand 1.95-4.95 Shallow RM124 329156.132 7355704.793 5.047 RM18 329923.575 7354588.769 Operational Gravelly 5.867 3.5-8.0 Shallow Sand, Quartz Sand, Sandy Clay Operational Sand 4.609 0.77 - 3.77 Shallow RM19 330021.5743 7354527.469 Operational Claystone 10.535 10.140 14.7-20.7 Deep RM20 330549.196 7353763.298 Operational Clayey Sand 8.96 8.613 2.43-5.43 Shallow RM21 330510.226 7353720.238 Operational Claystone 8.98 8.578 15.0-21.0 Deep RM28 3.175 RM29 328804.345 7356178.249 Operational Silty Clay, 3.293 2.686 6.0 - 14.5 Deep RM45 328799.270 7356177.262 Operational Sand, Clay 4.455 2.672 2.0 - 5.0 Shallow Silty Sand, Clayey Silt 328372.787 7355892.861 Operational Sand 3.618 2.1 - 6.0 Shallow

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 RM47 328890.015 7356446.791 Operational Sand 3.136 2.347 3.0-6.0 Shallow RM48 7.566 6.743 6.0-9.0 Deep RM49 329044.977 7355995.209 Operational Sand, Silty 6.556 5.702 6.0-9.0 Deep RM75 329255.307 7355520.541 Clay 4.135 3.435 2.6-4.8 RM80 4.48 3.419 3.4-4.9 Shallow RM86 Operational Sandy Clay, 10.758 10.199 19.5-22.5 Shallow RM87 Silty Clay 10.863 RM89 3.186 Deep 329676.979 7354951.949 Unknown 329370.24 7355162.89 Compliance Sand, Clayey Sand 330204.183 7353079.502 Compliance Slate 10.271 7.0-10.0 Shallow Sandy Clay, 2.487 2.8-6.0 Shallow 330203.971 7353076.734 Compliance Sandstone, 6.131 3.0-6.0 Shallow 6.835 4.2-7.2 Shale 7.260 1.7 - 6.2 Deep Shallow 328183.727 7355029.223 Compliance Claystone RM93 328216.738 7355561.849 Operational Silty Sand 6.656 RM94 7.534 RM35 328189.741 7355271.564 Operational Clay, Sandy 8.006 RM50 Clay 5.890 RM70 6.38 328280.029 7354723.604 Operational Silty Sand Clayey 329550.170 7354870.322 Operational Sand, Sandy 5.020 6.0 - 9.0 Deep 329608.33 7354784.39 Clay, Silty Clay Operational Sandy 5.619 3.0-6.0 Shallow Gravel

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 RM104a 328155.399 7354405.938 Compliance Sandstone 11.095 10.180 6.5-12.5 Shallow 39.983 39.036 18.7-33.7 Shallow RM118 331582.956 7350976.299 Compliance Slate, 26.615 25.763 18.6-21.6 Shallow Quartzite RM119 331563.819 7351767.232 Compliance Slate RM121 331516.286 7351319.639 Compliance Slate 32.593 31.793 20.6-23.6 Shallow RM133 328227.954 7355125.574 Operational Silty Sand 8.970 7.987 5.7 - 8.7 Shallow RM134 328250.570 7354904.662 Operational Silty Sand 9.865 8.920 3.0 - 6.0 Shallow RM135 328228.476 7355122.793 Operational Sand 8.982 8.012 13.0-16.0 Deep RM136 328251.564 7354900.542 Operational Claystone 9.794 8.853 8.6-14.6 Deep Interpretation Bores SMB14 331599.0005 7352496.909 Interpretation Clayey SILT 8.3 7.62 7.0-8.5 Deep Major Ions (Ca, Mg, Na, K, Cl, SO4) SMB30 331485.0531 7352054.9972 Interpretation Siltstone 28.8 28.38 23.0-26.0 Deep Quarterly 9.231 8.526 4.0-10.0 Shallow Fluoride (at a minimum) SMB61 331067.407 7353457.028 Interpretation Clay, Claystone

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Field Filtered Metal(loid)s (Aluminium, Arsenic, Gallium, Molybdenum, Vanadium) SMB62 331068.03 7353455.966 Interpretation Inferred 9.322 8.524 22.6-25.6 Deep Alkalinity Claystone (Total, Carbonate, Bicarbonate and Hydroxide) Electrical Conductivity pH Standing water level 1. In conjunction with maps of approximate locations within Figure 9 Groundwater monitoring locations - Refinery, Figure 10 Groundwater monitoring locations - South Trees Island and Figure 11 Groundwater monitoring locations - Residue Disposal Area. 2. RL must be measured at the top of the bore casing and at the surface to the nearest 5cm. 3. TRH required on ST5, AP1a - AP5, AP13, AP15 - AP17a, LF6, LF7 and LF17 only. 4. The requirement to monitor for Total dissolved solids to be re-assessed by 22 December 2025. 5. pH and EC are field measurements. 6. Field filtered metal(loid)s represent the dissolved (<0.45 -m) fraction

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Table 10 - Groundwater contaminant limits (compliance bores only) Bore pH (units)1 Electrical Aluminium Arsenic Cobalt Fluoride Gallium Manganes Molybdenum Vanadium Conductivity (-g /L)2 (mg/L) (-g /L)2 (-S/cm)1 (-g/L)2 (-g /L)2 e (-g /L)2 (-g /L)2 (-g /L)2 Limit A (20th to Limit B (95th percentile) only 80th percentile) only RM1 6 -7 50,000 24 2 26 2 2 1,700 2.5 3.1 RM104a 5.8-6.4 52,000 24 2 2.6 2 2 6,400 1.4 1 RM118 6-7 50,000 24 27 32 2 2 2,800 9.6 1.9 RM119 6-7 12,000 24 3.7 3.3 2 2 2,500 3.6 1.9 RM121 6-7 8,400 24 4.9 3.8 2 2 1,300 11.8 1.9 RM122d 5.7-7 45,000 24 7 11 2 2 2,700 6 1.9 RM123s 6-7 28,500 24 3.2 18.4 2 2 310 6 1.9 RM123d 6-7 24,000 55 2 3 2 2 310 6 1.9 RM125 5.8-6.8 18,000 24 3.6 11 2 2 1,500 6 1.7 RM132 5.6-7.1 63,500 24 2 2.5 2 2 910 1 1.9 RM24/RM24a 6.4-7.0 9,700 24 2.2 1 2 2 160 1.4 1.2

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Bore pH (units)1 Electrical Aluminium Arsenic Cobalt Fluoride Gallium Manganes Molybdenum Vanadium Conductivity RM3/RM3a (-S/cm)1 (-g/L)2 (-g /L)2 (-g /L)2 (mg/L) (-g /L)2 e (-g /L)2 (-g /L)2 (-g /L)2 RM4 RM54 Limit A (20th to Limit B (95th percentile) only RM55 80th percentile) RM56 only RM57 RM60 6-7 57,000 70 19.2 82 2 2 31,400 9.8 1.6 RM65 RM80 6-7 25,000 24 2.4 7.5 2 2 7,600 5.6 1.6 RM86 RM87 4.6-6.0 600 1,000 1.4 1 2 2 110 1.1 1.9 RM89 SMB29 6-7 47,000 24 2 4.4 2 2 2,900 3 1.2 6-7 41,000 24 5.1 22 2 2 7,500 6 1.9 6-7 64,000 24 2.5 2.3 2 2 2,700 2.9 1.9 6-7 46,000 24 13.4 34 2.7 2 7,200 23.4 3 6.8-7.5 62,000 24 1.9 1 2.6 2.6 6.8 37 4.5 5.7-6.5 30,000 24 3.3 2 2 2 1,900 10 2.6 5.4-6.5 62,000 24 11 27 2 2 4,200 3.6 1.9 5.6-6.2 50,000 24 7.2 50 2 2 5,700 1.3 1.9 6.6-7.4 68,000 24 1.7 3.2 3.7 2 4,300 9 1.9 6-7 24,000 24 3 2.3 2 2 95 2 1.9

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Bore pH (units)1 Electrical Aluminium Arsenic Cobalt Fluoride Gallium Manganes Molybdenum Vanadium Conductivity SMB53 (-S/cm)1 (-g/L)2 (-g /L)2 (-g /L)2 (mg/L) (-g /L)2 e (-g /L)2 (-g /L)2 (-g /L)2 SMB54 SMB55 Limit A (20th to Limit B (95th percentile) only SMB56 80th percentile) SMB63 only SMB9 WDMB31 6-7 63,000 24 2 39 2 2 11,000 6 1.9 5.6-6.4 34,000 24 5.3 62 2 2 2,000 6 1.9 6-7 12,000 24 34 1 2 2 770 3.4 1.9 5.7-6.3 25,000 24 2.1 3.6 2 2 800 1.7 1.9 5.4-6.5 66,000 32 5.8 250 2 4.2 15,000 1.6 1 6-7 64,000 24 2.7 7.7 2 2 1,100 6.8 1.9 6-7 22,500 24 2 18 2 2 580 1 1 1. pH and EC are field measurements. 2. Field filtered metal(loid)s represent the dissolved (<0.45 -m) fraction.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Table 11 Location of Residue disposal areas Coordinate Point Coordinate Name of Residue Easting (GDA94) Northing (GDA94) Point disposal area Reference Name of Residue disposal area Reference Easting (GDA94) Northing (GDA94) 1 Red Mud Dam 2 22 330,699 7,350,837 (Schedule 1, 3 330,642 7,350,813 Figure 5) 4 329,008 7,356,186 23 330,617 7,350,793 5 329,080 7,355,875 330,570 7,350,774 6 329,339 7,355,337 24 330,561 7,350,763 7 329,367 7,355,185 330,612 7,350,583 8 329,518 7,354,910 25 330,429 7,350,536 9 329,701 7,354,671 330,317 7,350,589 10 330,024 7,354,504 26 330,314 7,350,603 11 330,247 7,353,504 330,352 7,350,696 12 330,008 7,352,499 27 330,090 7,350,633 13 330,156 7,352,344 330,056 7,350,634 14 330,224 7,352,304 28 329,748 7,350,548 15 330,582 7,352,181 329,489 7,350,473 16 330,662 7,352,113 29 329,049 7,350,350 17 330,797 7,351,662 328,956 7,350,346 18 330,925 7,351,519 30 328,910 7,350,340 19 330,865 7,351,204 328,885 7,350,326 20 330,881 7,351,037 31 328,835 7,350,326 21 330,844 7,351,009 328,753 7,350,270 330,850 7,350,978 32 328,558 7,350,112 330,838 7,350,940 330,779 7,350,883 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Name of Residue Coordinate Easting (GDA94) Northing (GDA94) Name of Residue Coordinate Easting (GDA94) Northing (GDA94) disposal area Point disposal area Point Reference Reference 43 44 328,506 7,350,085 64 328,354 7,352,902 45 328,423 7,350,074 328,446 7,353,129 46 328,317 7,350,067 65 328,422 7,353,288 47 328,294 7,350,278 328,462 7,353,372 48 328,306 7,350,336 66 328,506 7,353,420 49 328,204 7,350,339 328,518 7,353,571 50 328,187 7,350,379 67 328,494 7,353,958 51 327,934 7,350,482 328,414 7,354,181 52 327,745 7,350,602 68 328,291 7,354,325 53 327,482 7,351,029 328,279 7,354,460 54 327,322 7,351,479 69 328,275 7,354,584 55 327,294 7,351,523 328,311 7,354,687 56 327,294 7,351,571 70 328,127 7,355,373 57 327,314 7,351,603 328,143 7,355,488 58 327,498 7,351,694 71 328,342 7,355,911 59 327,585 7,351,826 330,332 7,354,118 60 327,649 7,351,977 72 330,510 7,353,941 61 328,020 7,352,420 330,536 7,353,805 62 328,243 7,352,523 73 330,537 7,353,773 63 328,295 7,352,595 330,528 7,353,753 328,362 7,352,635 74 330,503 7,353,731 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Name of Residue Coordinate Easting (GDA94) Northing (GDA94) Name of Residue Coordinate Easting (GDA94) Northing (GDA94) disposal area Point disposal area Point Ash Dam Reference Reference (Schedule 1, 85 Figure 2) 86 330,217 7,353,749 20 326,528 7,357,681 1 330,148 7,354030 326,368 7,357,812 2 326,859 7,360,111 21 326,304 7,357,866 3 326,931 7,359,995 326,208 7,358,270 4 326,981 7,359,945 22 326,240 7,358,276 5 327,005 7,359,920 326,310 7,358,456 6 327,017 7,359,851 23 326,356 7,358,592 7 327,038 7,359,678 326,375 7,358,602 8 327,014 7,359,463 24 326,400 7,358,618 9 326,994 7,359,302 326,444 7,358,644 10 326,986 7,359,041 25 326,485 7,358,683 11 326,980 7,358,822 326,509 7,358,708 12 326,970 7,358,700 26 326,524 7,358,728 13 326,930 7,358,524 326,523 7,358,756 14 326,917 7,358,386 27 326,523 7,358,783 15 326,902 7,358,180 326,523 7,358,821 16 326,863 7,357,945 28 326,500 7,358,839 17 326,842 7,357,797 326,395 7,358,918 18 326,806 7,357,631 29 326,339 7,359,133 19 326,776 7,357,517 326,357 7,359,198 326,651 7,357,582 30 326,355 7,359,240 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Name of Residue Coordinate Easting (GDA94) Northing (GDA94) Name of Residue Coordinate Easting (GDA94) Northing (GDA94) disposal area Point disposal area Point Mineral Waste Reference Reference Disposal Facility 41 (Schedule 1, 42 326,754 7,360,020 34 326,523 7,358,783 Figure 3) 1 326,829 7,360,095 326,523 7,358,821 2 326,183 7,358,851 35 326,500 7,358,839 3 326,154 7,358,784 326,395 7,358,918 4 326,075 7,358,654 36 326,339 7,359,133 5 326,116 7,358,606 325,859 7,358,534 6 326,159 7,358,476 37 325,867 7,358,512 7 326,167 7,358,431 325,870 7,358,504 8 326,178 7,358,378 38 325,892 7,358,483 23 326,199 7,358,301 325,892 7,358,443 24 326,208 7,358,270 Asbestos 1 325,891 7,358,439 25 326,240 7,358,276 325,876 7,358,433 26 326,310 7,358,456 Landfill 2 325,884 7,358,400 27 326,356 7,358,592 (Schedule 1, 325,903 7,358,362 28 326,375 7,358,602 325,877 7,358,350 29 326,400 7,358,618 Figure 4) 3 325,853 7,358,372 30 326,444 7,358,644 325,835 7,358,411 31 326,485 7,358,683 4 325,832 7,358,420 32 326,509 7,358,708 325,831 7,358,476 33 326,524 7,358,728 5 325,825 7,358,504 326,523 7,358,756 325,828 7,358,505 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Name of Residue Coordinate Easting (GDA94) Northing (GDA94) disposal area Point Reference 325,832 7,358,508 325,835 7,358,518 17 325,836 7,358,525 18 19

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Table 12 Basic details of Residue disposal areas Name of Residue Hazard Maximum Maximum Maximum Use of residue disposal facility Disposal Facility Category surface area volume of of dam (ha)2 dam (m3)3 depth height of dam (m)1 1167 311,000,000 The permanent containment of residues and process liquor resulting from refining of bauxite and burning of fuel at the refinery, spoil containing acid sulphate soils from pipe inlet dredging, pond dredging or excavations conducted at the Red Mud Dam or refinery, Red Mud Dam High 55 and soil contaminated with process liquor from the QAL alumina refinery. Sea water is used as a transport agent to carry residues resulting from refining of bauxite to the Red Mud Dam via a pipeline. The containment of treated effluent from the Boyne Island Tannum Sands (BITS) wastewater treatment facilities. The permanent containment of residues (bottom fly ash) from the combustion of coal from Ash Dam Significant 131 13,300,000 16 the QAL alumina refinery. Sea water is used as a transport agent to carry bottom fly ash to the Ash Pond. Sediments from dredging of the Neutralising Pond. Mineral Waste The permanent containment of residues resulting from plant scale, process contaminants, Disposal Facility N/A 17 2,100,000 24 tank bottom sludges, soil contaminated with process liquor, alumina hydrate, process or bauxite contaminated coal. Asbestos Landfill N/A 0.8385 N/A 16 The permanent storage of asbestos material removed from the QAL alumina refinery. 1. Measured from the natural surface at the bottom of the dam wall to the surface of the crest of the dam. 2. Maximum surface area of dam (ha) is based on footprint of the residue areas. Maximum surface area of dam (ha) is measured by determining the area that falls within the outer perimeter of the Red Mud Dam (being delineated by the outside edge of the exterior roadways and natural embankments (as the case may be) that form the outer bound of the area where residues are contained and associated operational activities are conducted). 3. Volume is based on depth as AHD RL. Note: Sediments from dredging of the East and West Coal Stilling Ponds can be placed in Sand Pond 3.

OFFICIAL Permit Environmental authority EPPR00494413 Table 13 Hydraulic Performance of Regulated dams Name of residue disposal areas Spillway Capacity or Diversion Design storage allowance (Dams Mandatory reporting level (Dams assessed as a regulated dam Capacity (Levees) AEP (2) other than levees) AEP(1) other than levees) AEP(2) Red Mud Dam 1:10000 AEP 1 in 50 for the 3-month wet AEP 1 in 50, 72 hour season Ash Dam 1:1000 NA NA 1. The design storage allowance on 1st November of each year for any high hazard dam containing hazardous waste constructed within the operational land must be equivalent to the run- off from a 1 in 50 AEP 3-month wet season plus the residue flow from the refinery and the sea water flow from South Trees Inlet less the volume discharged from the RMD discharge to South Trees Inlet. 2. The mandatory reporting level refers to the level below the spillway crest, either the AEP 1 in 50, 72-hour storm or the AEP 1 in 50 wave allowance, whichever is lower END OF ENVIRONMENTAL AUTHORITY